Questions about the Cosmological Argument

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Yes, that’s what I"m saying. A immutable being cannot create something that begins because the will to create something is (necessarily) a sufficient condition for the effect (or for the act of creation, which on its turn is sufficient to bring about the effect). Hence, since the wil does iot begin, the sufficient condition does not begin and whatever is created does not begin.
Sometime I will try to answer your post that was directed towards me–I haven’t had much time lately.

The problem is that the will (in this case God’s will) does not begin by inability but by nature. This coupled with a relativistic conception of time (and not absolutist) is sufficient to disarm the supposed contradiction.

And by the way, that you think a being that cannot change cannot create at all, is highly relevant to this apparent problem.
 
  1. and 2. It’s convincing as far as it goes but it doesn’t mean anything. Who cares if the universe had an origin? (Thomas Aquinas was notoriously uninterested in that question and thought it was unanswerable this side of the grave).
I think you are mainly right with regards to your whole post. I’m sorry that I’m only pointing out a negative but I am short on time.

I think you’re being a bit extreme with regards to Aquinas’ interests. Aquinas did know that the universe had a beginning through Revelation… and Revelation truly interested Aquinas. But you are correct that philosophically he didn’t think it could be proved that the universe had a beginning.
 
Sometime I will try to answer your post that was directed towards me–I haven’t had much time lately.

The problem is that the will (in this case God’s will) does not begin by inability but by nature.
The problem is that the will does not begin at all
If this is ‘by nature’ does not change things. If anything iy makes matters worse because it is clear that, becasque of His nature, it is logically impossible for God to create a beginning universe.
This coupled with a relativistic conception of time (and not absolutist) is sufficient to disarm the supposed contradiction.
The problem is that the KCA requires an absolute beginning, and not a relativistic one.
And by the way, that you think a being that cannot change cannot create at all, is highly relevant to this apparent problem.
I am absolutely sure that a being that cannot change cannot create at all, but that is NOT relevant to the argument I present here.
 
Bump. Still waiting for you to show that I’m wrong/lying. You said a lot of things about me, now come on, back it up!

Guess for all your talk you can’t defend your beliefs as well as you thought you could.
 
Maybe I’m wrong, or maybe the language Craig is using is too unclear to be of value.
What Craig claims is not unclear. Whether his claims are mistaken or subject to contradiction is not the same issue at all. I mean, it makes it very difficult to have meaningful discussion with you about the implications of Kalam when you don’t know what Craig claims. Seriously.
He says time is created concomitantly with the first event. In what respect does he mean concomitantly? He seems to be saying the event of time’s creation has the same location in time as the first event ordered by it’s location in time. Does that make sense, though?
He certainly means that the act of creation and the effect of creation are causally simultaneous. I don’t see on what grounds you would object to that. After all, as Craig points out, “[c]ontemporary philosophical discussions of causal directionality deal routinely with cases in which cause and effect are simultaneous . . . .” So the next question is: Can causally simultaneous events also be temporally simultaneous?

Craig says yes. He even goes so far as to state: “ indeed, a good case can be made that all temporal causal relations involve the simultaneity of cause and effect.” While I personally think this goes too far, I suppose some examples can be shown; like the EPR experiment and action at a distance. In any case, he does conclude that causally simultaneous events can also be temporally simultaneous.
What would that mean for the event of times creation to have a location in time? I have no idea really.
According to Craig, we already know that causally simultaneous events can also be temporally simultaneous. Now we have to apply this to a specific example of a causally simultaneous event - that being the act (cause) of creating the universe and the effect that the universe exists. So I take your question to be whether it makes sense to claim that the causally simultaneous event of the existence of the universe can also be a temporally simultaneous event.
Maybe you could clear this up using set theory notation to describe the sequence we’re dealing with?
Well, I believe I can, but that’s not to say I will. You know as well as I do the considerable time and effort necessary to frame another person’s argument in symbolic notation. I suspect that’s why I haven’t seen a similar effort made by you to demonstrate the impossibility or implausibility of the argument. That being said, I will see if I can put it in some short-hand notation that will elucidate Craig’s position. First though, I need to deal with a couple of your other comments.
You’re right, precede means to come before but it does not necessarily have to mean temporally. 1 precedes 2 in a sequence of integers, red precedes blue in a rainbow, and one event may precede another in a causal chain. None of these examples have anything to do with time.
Correct, but these examples do have to do with space. That red proceeds blue in a rainbow is a declaration about a spatial property. The same can be said of the relationship between ordered integers. I can have a written integer line from left to right beginning with the integer 1 and concluding with 10. It can be abstracted such that we can speak of “1 coming before 10,” but ultimately it is based on a spatial ordering. But I don’t see how it makes sense to claim that a cause and effect have spatial properties. Even assuming that they do, I take it you aren’t using the term “causal past” to reflect spatial relationships.

One tends to think that the phrase, “causes precede effects” means that causes temporally come before effects. If you mean it some other way then you will need to explain. I think we can both agree that causes may temporally precede effects, as in a ball being thrown at t=1 and striking a wall at t=2. Similarly, if a cause is temporally simultaneous with an effect, we say that the cause occurs at t=1 and the effect also occurs at t=1. In fact, we would have to say that. If “simultaneous” is to mean anything it is that there is no duration of time intervening between the cause of an event and the effect of the event.
This is incredibly vague. Obscuring the creation of time only makes the argument weaker, not stronger.
Well, that certainly wasn’t my intent. The point was to define “time” so we are both talking about the same thing. Time is a measure of the duration of physical reality. No physical reality, no time. So while philosophers (including you) say things like if “God created time,” it is equivalent to saying, “God created physical reality (the universe) which has time as its measure of duration.” As long as we are clear on that, then no problems.
I’m not trying to argue that there was some lag between the cause of creation and the effect of creation. I’m saying that it doesn’t make sense for the event of time’s creation to have a location in time.
Here we go:

(1) The cause of the existence of the universe is simultaneous with the effect of the existence of the universe;
(2) There can be no temporal duration between causally simultaneous events;
(3) The effect of the existence of the universe occurred at t=0;
(4) Therefore, the cause of the existence of the universe occurred at t=0.

This is how I understand Craig’s argument. Your objection that: “You can’t say that the cause and effect happened at the same time because the effect was time,” simply denies that temporal causal relations can involve the simultaneity of cause and effect.
 
The problem is that the will does not begin at all
If this is ‘by nature’ does not change things. If anything iy makes matters worse because it is clear that, becasque of His nature, it is logically impossible for God to create a beginning universe.
A being that does not change is not subject to time, therefore, there can be no time restriction that limits the being’s creative powers–if one accepts that a timless/changeless being can create at all (which you don’t).
The problem is that the KCA requires an absolute beginning, and not a relativistic one.
I don’t see why. If time is a measure of change and change is relative, then it appears that time must be relative as well. And thus saying the universe has a beginning is not necessarily to make any pronouncement about the time-quality of God.
I am absolutely sure that a being that cannot change cannot create at all, but that is NOT relevant to the argument I present here.
If a timeless being cannot create something that has a beginning, and a timeless being does not change, then a being that does not change cannot create something that has a beginning.

And if a being that does not change cannot create at all, then such a being obviously could not create something that has a beginning either. It would be better to cut to the chase and just say this outright; in other words, this is highly relevant whether you realize it or not.
 
God has willed frrometernity that the universe exist and god’s will is a suuficinet condition for the universe to existtherefore at each and every non-temporal point at which the nont-temporal God exists, so must the uniiverse.
Question, what the heck is a non-temporal point? You make it sound like there are a bunch of them or something.
I have no problem with looking at things from the perspective of eternity. But time is relative (perspective is essential) and therefore the universe can have a beginning while being caused by a timeless being.
God knows that we have an incomplete experiience. to use an analogy: God knows that what we experience us a two-dimensional circle is really a sphere.
If time is relative, then I don’t see how our experience is somehow incomplete (at least by nature). Your objection only works on an absolutist conception of time.
Because there is no diiference newteen Him being ‘alone’ and Him being with the universe.
There is a logical difference.
No, because if I select the wrong definition, there is no contradiction.
Actually there does seem to be by virtue of your initial argument. If God merely went backwards in time infinitely, then He would have already realized all possibilities, which means that a universe that had a beginning would have happened already–and this problem exists for however early you want to postulate our universe.

This problem does not arise with a being not subject to time categorically and a universe that has a beginning.
How are you sneaking change into God?
Read my last few sentences as it answers this question. When I look at it I find that I have a contradiction only because I have accidentally used the wrong definition of eternity and have subscribed change to God.
Which premise are you losing sight of?
That God does not change.
No, Shike, he only possible way in which a temporal first member could occur is if God is NOT the sufficient condition.
So says you. I can’t see any contradiction yet… though it’s not like I haven’t tried.
I am not even saying that it is. All I am saying is that ‘beginning’ or ‘coming into being’ contradicts an a-temporal state in which nothing changes;
I agree. When you select the wrong definition of eternity, this is exactly what you get. But you still need to see the difference between the lack of something versus categorically not having something. As the latter is the key to seeing how what you argue here doesn’t apply to a being that doesn’t change by nature.
NO, he could not. But keep in mind that for the sake of the discussion in this thread I am assuming He could.
Then logically you have already given the ‘game’ away.
Well, that much is certain. But I think it shows that there is something wring with Craig’s KCA too.
I can only say that I accept the first three lines so far. I do not accept his philosophical argument for 2, however, which is why I see the first three lines not in the same light as a demonstration along the lines of, say, one of Aquinas’ Five Ways.
 
A being that does not change is not subject to time, therefore, there can be no time restriction that limits the being’s creative powers.
There is no time restriction that limits the being’s creative powers and that’s excatly why the things he creates do not have beginnings.
I don’t see why. If time is a measure of change and change is relative, then it appears that time must be relative as well.
But if God creates change then chnage is NOT relative either.
And thus saying the universe has a beginning is not necessarily to make any pronouncement about the time-quality of God.
It is saying that God began to do something.
If a timeless being cannot create something that has a beginning, and a timeless being does not change, then a being that does not change cannot create something that has a beginning.
Of course.
And if a being that does not change cannot create at all, then such a being obviously could not create something that has a beginning either.
That’s obvious.
It would be better to cut to the chase and just say this outright; in other words, this is highly relevant whether you realize it or not.
No it is not relevant to my argument, because, I am willing to accept for the sake of the argument that a changeless being can create something.
 
Question, what the heck is a non-temporal point? You make it sound like there are a bunch of them or something.
I don’t think there is such a thing as a non-temporal point. It’s just an analogy to describe the non-temporal eternity of God.
I have no problem with looking at things from the perspective of eternity. But time is relative (perspective is essential) and therefore the universe can have a beginning while being caused by a timeless being.
From the perspective of eternity, the universe has no beginning. But the universe can have a beginning from rhe perspective of temporality. that’'s what relativistic means.

But God also has no beginning from the perspective of eternity, but He does have a beginning from a temporal perspective.
If time is relative, then I don’t see how our experience is somehow incomplete (at least by nature). Your objection only works on an absolutist conception of time.
Our experince is incomplete because from the perspective of eternity, time has no beginning at all. A complete experience would have to take into account all possible perspectives.
There is a logical difference.
Tes, but a logical difference does not denote a beginning.
Actually there does seem to be by virtue of your initial argument. If God merely went backwards in time infinitely, then He would have already realized all possibilities, which means that a universe that had a beginning would have happened already–and this problem exists for however early you want to postulate our universe.
Maybe, but since I do not presuppose a temporal eternity, this is irrelevant.

This problem does not arise with a being not subject to time categorically and a universe that has a beginning.
Read my last few sentences as it answers this question. When I look at it I find that I have a contradiction only because I have accidentally used the wrong definition of eternity and have subscribed change to God.
No, the contradiction arises just because God does NOT change.
So says you. I can’t see any contradiction yet… though it’s not like I haven’t tried.
The problem is that from this perspective, God begins too, and if we believe the KCA, God must have a cause. From an eternal perspective, however, the first member you are talking about does not come into existence, because from an eternal point of view, nothing comes into existence.
So, to summarize: if we take a beginning to be relative, then from one perspective both the universe and God have a beginning (since there is no time prior to the first temporal act)
but from an eternal perspective, the first member and God have no beginning.

Maybe this will become clearer if we use Craig’s definition of ‘beginning to exist’.
He says something like
X begins to exist if

X exists at t=0
There is no time prior to t=0 in which X exsist

and

X does not exist in an a-temporal state at t=0

Craig holds that God does not begin to exist because He does exist in aa a-temoral state at t=0.
But that means that from a temporal POV, God begins to exist at t=0, but from an eternal POV, God does not begin to exist at t=0. the porblem for the KCA is, that from an eternal POV, the universe does not come into existence either.

So, it is the KCA which conflates these two perspectives, not I.
I agree. When you select the wrong definition of eternity, this is exactly what you get. But you still need to see the difference between the lack of something versus categorically not having something. As the latter is the key to seeing how what you argue here doesn’t apply to a being that doesn’t change by nature.
The porblem is that, to make his KCA work, Craig has to select this ‘wrong definition of eternity’ for the universe and the ‘right definition of eternity for God’.
And you still do not seem to get this.
Then logically you have already given the ‘game’ away.
No, I am merely not conflating two arguments.
I can only say that I accept the first three lines so far. I do not accept his philosophical argument for 2,
Because his philosophical argument argues from an absolute and not a relative beginning.
however, which is why I see the first three lines not in the same light as a demonstration along the lines of, say, one of Aquinas’ Five Ways.
They contradict Aquinas’ five ways.
 
From the perspective of eternity, the universe has no beginning. But the universe can have a beginning from rhe perspective of temporality. that’'s what relativistic means.
I don’t think I can say much until you start naming what definition of eternity you are using at any given time: either atemporality or a series without a first member that stretches back infinitely into the past.
But God also has no beginning from the perspective of eternity, but He does have a beginning from a temporal perspective.
Please parse your definition of eternity. A temporal perspective does not apply to something that doesn’t change, and therefore it doesn’t apply to God.
Our experince is incomplete because from the perspective of eternity, time has no beginning at all. A complete experience would have to take into account all possible perspectives.
To risk repeating myself, I need you to parse your definition. That said, unless you are God I’d say that by nature you are grounded in time and that such an experience outside of time doesn’t make you any more human than you already are (actually it would make you less human as you wouldn’t be human at all; there is only one possible atemporal seat and it is taken already).
From an eternal perspective, however, the first member you are talking about does not come into existence, because from an eternal point of view, nothing comes into existence.
You got it… parse your definition. Atemporality doesn’t apply to things with a beginning so what you say is true although for a different reason. Subsequently you don’t get the conclusion you are after. We could try to say what it would be like for an atemporal Being to experience things with a beginning.
They contradict Aquinas’ five ways.
I’m fairly certain that the first three lines do not (to be clear, I am not talking about supporting arguments for the first three lines).
 
There is no time restriction that limits the being’s creative powers and that’s excatly why the things he creates do not have beginnings.
Depends what definition you are using to underlie “no time restriction”. If categorical atemporality is meant, then there is no contradiction with such a being creating something with a beginning. Of course we mean the words “creating” and “being” as having analogical functions, but it is still true to say.
 
I don’t think I can say much until you start naming what definition of eternity you are using at any given time: either atemporality or a series without a first member that stretches back infinitely into the past.
I am a using the first definition at al times in this argument: atemporality.
Please parse your definition of eternity. A temporal perspective does not apply to something that doesn’t change, and therefore it doesn’t apply to God.
Temporal creatures perceive everything temporally. So, form the perspective of a temporal being, God has a beginning, and from the prespective of God, nothing has.
Craig conflates the two perspectives in his KCA.
That said, unless you are God I’d say that by nature you are grounded in time and that such an experience outside of time doesn’t make you any more human than you already are (actually it would make you less human as you wouldn’t be human at all; there is only one possible atemporal seat and it is taken already).
Of course only an atemporal being can have a truly atemporal experiience and only temporal beings can have temporal experiences.
That’s exactly why the KCA does not work. It conflates boths concepts.
You got it… parse your definition. Atemporality doesn’t apply to things with a beginning so what you say is true although for a different reason. Subsequently you don’t get the conclusion you are after.
Atempoorality does not apply to things with a beginning and beginnin does not apply to atempral things.
But the point is: if the creator is atemporal, then the ‘first’ thing He creates cannot have a beginning either, because that would entail that the creature began doing something.
So, howvere we as temporal creaturs perceive creation, it did not really begin.

And that’s more than enough to counter the KCA.
We could try to say what it would be like for an atemporal Being to experience things with a beginning.
An atemporal being cannot precieve things with a beginning.
I’m fairly certain that the first three lines do not (to be clear, I am not talking about supporting arguments for the first three lines).
The second premise: the universe has a beginning, contradicts at least one of Aquinas’ ways, since Aquinas holds that the creator/sustainer of the universe is unchanging and immutable and therfore cannot begin to do something, hence creation (the universe)cannot begin to exist.
 
Depends what definition you are using to underlie “no time restriction”. If categorical atemporality is meant, then there is no contradiction with such a being creating something with a beginning.
Yes, there is, because a categorically atemporal being cannot begin to do something, otherwise it would leave its category.

Now, Shike, unless you have something new to add I think we’ve arived at an impasse.
To clarify my position for the last time: I do not object to an atempral being creating something that we perceive as having a beginning, but that does not save the KCA.
The KCA states that the universe began to exist, it does not state that the universe is perceived as having a beginning.

Thank you for the interesting discussion. I am glad that at least some people here have the courtesy to actually addrees my arguments instead of just mocking them out of sheer ignorance.
 
Temporal creatures perceive everything temporally. So, form the perspective of a temporal being, God has a beginning, and from the prespective of God, nothing has.
This doesn’t make sense to me. Sure, in one sense a temporal creature perceives everything temporally because the creature has to be in time to perceive anything at all. But it isn’t clear to me that everything a creature perceives must be temporal, especially if perception in general extends beyond the five senses–which it must. If such was not the case, then we couldn’t come to any knowledge of the existence of God in the first place. But we can based on arguments such as Aquinas’ Five Ways, ergo…

Also, just because God doesn’t experience what we experience a beginning to be doesn’t mean He can’t experience things that have a beginning… This doesn’t mean beginnings are not real for God, it just means that beginnings are relative to a subject that undergoes change. But God knows we undergo change and that we have beginnings–it is an objective fact. So, speaking using words with analogical function, God ‘always sees’ a thing’s beginning.
But the point is: if the creator is atemporal, then the ‘first’ thing He creates cannot have a beginning either, because that would entail that the creature began doing something.
So, howvere we as temporal creaturs perceive creation, it did not really begin.
You are treating the relative as imaginary. The relative nature of time and change is a real objective fact. Again, there is no contradiction between an atemporal being ‘creating from all eternity’ something that has a beginning.
An atemporal being cannot precieve things with a beginning.
An atemporal being cannot perceive things the same way that a creature with a beginning perceives things, but nonetheless, (somewhat depending on one’s definition of perception) such a being can perceive things that have a beginning.
The second premise: the universe has a beginning, contradicts at least one of Aquinas’ ways, since Aquinas holds that the creator/sustainer of the universe is unchanging and immutable and therfore cannot begin to do something, hence creation (the universe)cannot begin to exist.
That’s close. But for Aquinas God creates from atemporality (or all eternity). And, as I pointed out above, just because the experience of a beginning is relative doesn’t make it any less of an objective fact that some things have beginnings–God still experiences creatures that have a beginning.
Yes, there is, because a categorically atemporal being cannot begin to do something, otherwise it would leave its category.
You are correct. But it’s not necessary for an atemporal being to begin to do something which it can do from all eternity–and, again, such an action doesn’t preclude the creation of beings with beginnings. I’m not saying I fully comprehend how such a thing is possible, only that there is no contradiction with what I do comprehend.
Now, Shike, unless you have something new to add I think we’ve arived at an impasse.
To clarify my position for the last time: I do not object to an atempral being creating something that we perceive as having a beginning, but that does not save the KCA.
The KCA states that the universe began to exist, it does not state that the universe is perceived as having a beginning.
I myself am not too concerned with the KCA as with your position that A) an atemporal, unchanging being cannot create anything at all, and B) an atemporal, unchanging being cannot create anything that has a beginning. I grant that the experience of Creator and creature will be different, but it wouldn’t change the objective state of affairs or merit that such a beginning would somehow be “unreal”.

As I said before, my position on the KCA so far is that the first three lines, which can be taken as a complete argument as it has two premises and a conclusion, is not only valid but sound. However, that said, because of the remote empirical nature of the second premise, it does not have the same level of certainty that one of Aquinas’ Five Ways has. I reject Craig’s necessary philosophical argument for premise #2 and think that it must be proved by empirical means. And I think it is very reasonable, in light of the evidence, that the universe has a beginning… so much so that I would say we know the universe has a beginning.
Thank you for the interesting discussion. I am glad that at least some people here have the courtesy to actually addrees my arguments instead of just mocking them out of sheer ignorance.
You are welcome. And it is always a breath of fresh air around here to get someone who doesn’t use the philosophy forum as a pretext to throw around stereotypes and avoid philosophy.

As an aside from this discussion with no implied connection, I can’t tell you just how much misconception there is out there with regards to the Catholic Church (both doctrine and practice). Even many people who are raised Catholic don’t have a clue. Case in point, I’ve recently talked to someone who thought the Church was exploiting nuns because they aren’t being paid anything anywhere near to what priests get paid. How can someone grow up Catholic and not know that nuns voluntarily take a vow of poverty is beyond me.

I apologize for this and hopefully it is something I can help correct throughout my life.
 
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