Questions about the Olivet Discourse

[WJL]

I’m having some trouble understanding the Olivet Discourse spoken by Our Lord in Matthew 24 as to how it is to be properly understood. I understand there are a number of eschatological views regarding this topic (e.g. partial preterist, full preterist, partial futurist, full futurist). Matthew 24:4-34 seems to refer to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD (particularly Matt. 24:34) while 24:35-25:46 appears to refer to His future return and final Judgment of the world, however there are some verses between Matthew 24:4-34 which also seem to refer to Christ’s second coming and the final Judgment (for example Matt. 24:9-14 and Matt. 24:21-31) but, I am unsure of that interpretation.

What is the traditional view of the Church on how the Olivet Discourse and its eschatology should be understood?

Many skeptics/atheists/non-Christians will claim that Jesus wrongly predicted His return/second coming to occur in the 1st century based on His words in Matthew 24:34 - “Truly, I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place.” Could anyone explain to me the proper understanding of this verse or provide some orthodox (i.e. correct) resources that do?

Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

 

[NHInsider]

Most Biblical prophecy can be seen to have had near-time and more distant fulfillments. It is likely that the eschatological statements of Jesus are similarly multi-layered.

The destruction of the Temple did take place during the lifetimes of some of those who were listening to Jesus (history records that no Christians remained in the city of Jerusalem at the time of its destruction, because when the Roman standard was erected in the Temple they considered it the fulfillment of the prophecy in v. 15 and fled to the hills).

Our fellow CAFer Copland (John Litteral) has recently made available a wonderful assortment of Catholic commentaries on the Gospels which you may find helpful.