Questions Concerning Psalm 1

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Terry_from_Ypsi

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Hello:

In Psalm 1 (RSV) as I read it there are 5 categories of individuals:
  1. Those who are deemed “Blessed”
  2. Those who are “Righteous”
  3. Those who are “wicked”
  4. Those who are “sinners”
  5. Those who are “scoffers”
Any thoughts as to any differences between sinners and the wicked and scoffers ?

Vs 3: In all that he does, he prospers.
If a person is not “prospering”, does this reflect on the person not having “his delight is in the law of the LORD, and on his law he meditates day and night”

Also, does this psalm conflict at all with the Beatitudes ?

How does one view Psalm 1 in the light of the Beatitudes and the different teachings of our Lord Jesus Christ about riches ?

Thanks,
 
The fact that varioius words are used to describe various persons in a Bible passage does not imply that all persons are to be categorized by those terms.
 
When I read Psalm 1, I see only two categories; 1) righteous and 2) wicked. Each has various attributes described.
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Terry_from_Ypsi:
If a person is not “prospering”, does this reflect on the person not having “his delight is in the law of the LORD, and on his law he meditates day and night”
Only if one remembers to include the spiritual world in determine if one is “prospering”.

I don’t see a conflict between between Psalm 1 and the Beatitudes. What conflict do you see?
 
Hello:

In Psalm 1 (RSV) as I read it there are 5 categories of individuals:
  1. Those who are deemed “Blessed”
  2. Those who are “Righteous”
  3. Those who are “wicked”
  4. Those who are “sinners”
  5. Those who are “scoffers”
Any thoughts as to any differences between sinners and the wicked and scoffers ?

Vs 3: In all that he does, he prospers.
If a person is not “prospering”, does this reflect on the person not having “his delight is in the law of the LORD, and on his law he meditates day and night”

Also, does this psalm conflict at all with the Beatitudes ?

How does one view Psalm 1 in the light of the Beatitudes and the different teachings of our Lord Jesus Christ about riches ?

Thanks,
Psalm 1 is one of the OT passages in which there is a distinction between two different classes of people, who are seen as opposites, based on their response to God’s Law, that is, whether they heed the Law, meaning both listen to and obey. On the one hand are the “righteous” who meditate on the Law of the Lord day and night (i.e., they heed and obey). They are blessed by God, and as a result, they prosper. On the other had, there are those who ignore (and do not heed/obey) the Law of the Lord. They are called, variously, “wicked”, “sinners”, “scoffers” and so on. One can interpret the source of blessing in different ways. Some might say that the “righteous” prosper because God’s Law gives prudent advice on how to live in God’s creation. Others might say that the blessing and prosperity is given by God as a reward to those who heed and obey the Law. I think the latter is the better reading, but both have merit.

I don’t see any conflict between Ps. 1 and the Beatitudes except, perhaps, that Jesus does not emphasize blessing and prosperity in the sense of riches, bountiful harvests, many children, etc., as would be the way many of the Psalms describe the way that God blesses one who is righteous. You raise a good question, though. Certainly, Jesus’ teaching in the Beatitudes would be shocking to his audience: assuming that the poor, hungry, persecuted one of the Beatitudes is “righteous” and heeds and obeys God’s Law, Jesus teaching seems to reverse conventional expectations – what kind of blessing is it to be poor, hungry, and persecuted?

The Old Testament seems to struggle with this question in Job, for example. In the New Testament, at least one answer seems to be that one should seek one’s reward in heaven. Another reading would see the sharing of goods and mutual support of the new Christian community (Acts 2) as another answer, whether limited to the local community or extended to the entire Body of Christ (as in some of the social encyclicals of this century). Some would say that Jesus’ teaching obliges us to work to change the social structures that cause our brothers and sisters in Christ to be poor, hungry and persecuted.
 
One thinking behind the category of “Blessed” is that of ourselves, we are not capable of drawing near to God. It is an act of mercy that God choses to “bless” some who draw close to him. So verse 1 is a call to humility recognizing that of myself, without God’s mercy, I would have no desire to do what is said in Psalm 1.

The reason I separated the other categories is that I was wondering if they identify different patterns of sin and degrees of sin.

In other words, there are “sinners” and there are sinners that are “wicked.”

In the beatitudes, there are new identities to those that are blessed. They seem to “add” additioinal categories to what is in Psalm 1. Almost like the Beatitudes expand
about those who “fear God.”

Yes, riches and poverty and posterity are portrayed differently in Psalm 1, the Beatitudes and the Gospels. Take for example the “rich young man”, he could sell all he had and give to the poor and have treasure in heaven. In the Beatitudes, the "poor in spirit: inherit the kingdom of God.

From Psalm 1, I view prosperity as a blessing for those who fear God. SO those who prosper bear witness to God’s faithfulness. There is no indication that the individuals ought to sell all their goods.

Regards,
 
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