Pax:
I fail to see how your distinctions might impact Matthew 16:18-19 or any of the following scriptures:
(I am assuming, for the purpose of discussion, that the text is inerrant.)
Perhaps what impacts most upon Mt 16:18-9 is the difference in the Greek text between “petros”, Peter, the pebble or separate piece of rock, and “petra”, the rock on which Jesus will build, the bedrock whence the pebbles come. According to the text, Jesus did not say that he would build the church on Peter.
Of the others, John 1:17 and 16:13 assert the existence of truth, but neither sites that truth within an ideology. 1 Cor. 2:13 refers to an ability to express “truths” (“pneumatika”; ‘spiritual things’), and is, significantly, plural.
Now, Eph 1:13 and Col. 1:5 are the most interesting to me, in that both do make an explicit connection, but that the word of truth, the “logos” (qv John 1:1) is the announcement (“euangelion”) of salvation. Once more, the connection between Jesus and the truth is far closer than that of teacher and doctrine: Jesus
is the truth which has been taught.
Regarding 1 Tim. 3:15, there is no definite article before “stulos” (pillar), which does not mean that one cannot be assumed. However, it does raise the question of the uniqueness of that pillar, especially because stuloi are not normally found alone. Again, the truth is not delimited.
2 Peter 2:2, like the verses in John, does not delimit the location of the truth (even without the possibility that “he” could be ‘that’ rather than ‘the’).
So, none of of the verses contradicts that reading of John 14:6. Of course, that does not make the reading correct.