Questions on the Canons of the 1st Council of Nicaea

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I was reading over the Canons of the First Council of Nicaea.
I had some questions on some of them. My main concerns are in the penance sentences and the Baptism stuff.1. If anyone in sickness has undergone surgery at the hands of physicians or has been castrated by barbarians, let him remain among the clergy. …
What was the problem going on here in the first place?

6. The ancient customs of Egypt, Libya and Pentapolis shall be maintained, according to which the bishop of Alexandria has authority over all these places since a similar custom exists with reference to the bishop of Rome. Similarly in Antioch and the other provinces the prerogatives of the churches are to be preserved.
In general the following principle is evident: if anyone is made bishop without the consent of the metropolitan, this great synod determines that such a one shall not be a bishop. If however two or three by reason of personal rivalry dissent from the common vote of all, provided it is reasonable and in accordance with the church’s canon, the vote of the majority shall prevail.
What does it mean by bishop of Rome? The Pope? Then why is there a bishop of Alexandria with similar power?
Also I dont understand this legal talk in the second part.
7. Since there prevails a custom and ancient tradition to the effect that the bishop of Aelia is to be honoured, let him be granted everything consequent upon this honour, saving the dignity proper to the metropolitan.
I dont understand this at all.

11. Concerning those who have transgressed without necessity or the confiscation of their property or without danger or anything of this nature, as happened under the tyranny of Licinius, this holy synod decrees that, though they do not deserve leniency, nevertheless they should be treated mercifully. Those therefore among the faithful who genuinely repent shall spend three years among the hearers, for seven years they shall be prostrators, and for two years they shall take part with the people in the prayers, though not in the offering.
So what is going on here? They did something bad but it was out of fear or something? And can you explain these penance terms and why were they so harsh? 12. Those who have been called by grace, have given evidence of first fervour and have cast off their [military] belts, and afterwards have run back like dogs to their own vomit, so that some have even paid money and recovered their military status by bribes — such persons shall spend ten years as prostrators after a period of three years as hearers. In every case, however, their disposition and the nature of their penitence should be examined. For those who through their fear and tears and perseverance and good works give evidence of their conversion by deeds and not by outward show, when they have completed their appointed term as hearers, may properly take part in the prayers, and the bishop is competent to decide even more favourably in their regard. But those who have taken the matter lightly, and have thought that the outward form of entering the church is all that is required for their conversion, must complete their term to the full.
Again, I dont understand the crime and dont understand the penance terms and conditions (especially at the special case here).

14. Concerning catechumens who have lapsed, this holy and great synod decrees that, after they have spent three years as hearers only, they shall then be allowed to pray with the catechumens.
Same questions as usual.

19. Concerning the former Paulinists who seek refuge in the catholic church, it is determined that they must be rebaptised unconditionally. Those who in the past have been enrolled among the clergy, if they appear to be blameless and irreproachable, are to be rebaptised and ordained by the bishop of the catholic church. …
Who were the Paulinists? And what is this rebaptised stuff? I though people are not to be rebaptised?

And one more thing, what was the situation on the celebration of Easter? On that link it says only the Greek text includes this passage, is that correct? Was everyone to keep the same date or what? I couldnt follow what it was saying.
 
Catholic Dude said:
1. If anyone in sickness has undergone surgery at the hands of physicians or has been castrated by barbarians, let him remain among the clergy. …
What was the problem going on here in the first place?

Some clergy were castrating themselves, or undergoing castration willingly. The Council determined this was self-mutilation and directed that any such men be suspended from their Office (and no such men may be ordained in the future). But if castration occured without the person’s will or consent then this person was permitted to remain in his Office.
6. The ancient customs of Egypt, Libya and Pentapolis shall be maintained…
What does it mean by bishop of Rome? The Pope? Then why is there a bishop of Alexandria with similar power?
Also I dont understand this legal talk in the second part.
These are the great Sees (Rome is, of course, also one of these great Sees)… The Archbishop enjoys great authority within his own See, as the Pope does in Rome. This is still true today.
7. Since there prevails a custom and ancient tradition to the effect that the bishop of Aelia is to be honoured, let him be granted everything consequent upon this honour, saving the dignity proper to the metropolitan.
I dont understand this at all.
This is granting similar honor to the Bishops of Jerusalem as to other great Sees (even though Jerusalem wasn’t really one of the great Sees).
11. Concerning those who have transgressed without necessity or the confiscation of their property or without danger or anything of this nature…
So what is going on here? They did something bad but it was out of fear or something? And can you explain these penance terms and why were they so harsh?
This Canon deals with people who became apostate even though they were NOT threatened with any significant persecution (they ran even before the first hint of trouble). The punishment does seem harsh, but punishments tended to be harsh back in those days.
12. Those who have been called by grace, have given evidence of first fervour and have cast off their [military] belts, and afterwards have run back like dogs to their own vomit…
Again, I dont understand the crime and dont understand the penance terms and conditions (especially at the special case here).
Some soldiers had quit their military rank (and privilege) to become Christian. But when Licinius waged war against Christians, they sought to regain their rank and status to *join *in the persecution. This is an especially wicked form of apostacy - hence the rather strict punishment.
14. Concerning catechumens who have lapsed, this holy and great synod decrees that, after they have spent three years as hearers only, they shall then be allowed to pray with the catechumens.
Same questions as usual.
Catechumens who fell into apostacy are held to a lesser standard, but they still don’t get off scott free.
19. Concerning the former Paulinists who seek refuge in the catholic church, it is determined that they must be rebaptised unconditionally.
Who were the Paulinists? And what is this rebaptised stuff? I though people are not to be rebaptised?
The Paulinists were followers of Paul of Samosata, a heretical Bishop of Antioch (deposed from his See in 268). He defined the Trinity as “Father, Wisdom, and Word” and taught that Jesus differed only in degree from the prophets. Since he did not practice Christian Baptism in any sense of the word, his followers were to be properly Baptized (it is somewhat misleading that the Canon says “rebaptized’” - they were never Baptized in the first place). This is the same thing that happened with those who received the Baptism of John - they had to be “re-baptized” with Christian Baptism.
And one more thing, what was the situation on the celebration of Easter? On that link it says only the Greek text includes this passage, is that correct? Was everyone to keep the same date or what? I couldnt follow what it was saying.
The proper setting of the date of Easter is STILL not entirely agreed upon… so it was hardly settled by Nicea. Apparently you’re not the only one who didn’t really understand this passage 😃
 
Thanks,
I was starting to think that nobody knew the answer.
 
Catholic Dude:
Thanks,
I was starting to think that nobody knew the answer.
Me, too - thank you so much for your thorough lesson. I have learned so much from these forums and I feel as though I am constantly growing in my faith. You added to that today.
 
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