Is this accurate of Catholicism?
Roman Catholicism. In the Roman tradition the righteousness of God was understood more as that which was demanded by God. The medieval understanding of the nature of justification referred not merely to the beginning of the Christian life, but to its continuation and ultimate perfection, in which the Christian is made righteous in the sight of God and the sight of others through a fundamental change in nature (McGrath). The prevailing pre-Reformation view in the West of the righteousness of God was that of a distributive justice whereby God judges justly according to God’s holiness. A common theological position was that righteousness of God was a subjective genitive, God’s holiness being the norm by which all would be judged. Luther’s personal struggle with the inexorable righteousness of God resulted in an understanding of the righteousness of God that was deeper than his tradition had grasped. In Catholic thought, justification was not considered something in the present as much as a process leading to the ultimate future judgment.
Luther deep? Now that’s a novel idea. I’d read Matt 25:31-46 to get an idea of what God expects man’s righteousness to “look like”, what He wants it to progress
to. And yes, man’s righteousness is based on God’s own righteousness. We’re made in His image, destined to be partakers of His nature. Scripture exhorts man to “
Be holy, because I am holy” (1Pet 1:16), and to "
be perfect, ad your heavenly father is perfect" (Matt 5:48). The reason that man’s righteosness is based on God’s is simply because God’s holiness issues from His love and this is why love is what constitutes man’s justice according to to the greatest commandments. In fact, in Catholic terms, holiness, righteousness, justice, perfection, purity are synonymous terms.
In any case man’s righteousness doesn’t issue from himself, but was determined for him by God. However, at the Fall, man departed from Gods righteousness, doing what was right in his own eyes, determining righteousness for himself, which God gave him the freedom to do. And all sin actually follows from this condition of man, no longer in subjugation to God.
Paul tells us in Phil 3:9 that
“I consider them [his own acts of righteousness] garbage, that I may gain Christ and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ—the righteousness that comes from God on the basis of faith.” Obedience to the Law, which Paul tells us he excelled at, is not true righteousness because it’s not true subjugation to God-rather its a pretense, a show, of subjugation. The righteousness that comes from God, which is the only place man’s righteousness
can come from, is based on faith, because faith is the beginning of authentic subjugation to God. IOW, faith is not the
equivalent of justice or righteousness for man, it is the
basis of said righteousness.
God wants man truly, ontologically, just, not merely
declared just. Otherwise He’d be in the awkward position of giving man laws he couldn’t possibly obey, then blaming him for disobedience anyway, then sort of capriciously deciding at some later date to forgive sins and declare man just-at least some-in spite of his sin. God’s creation, in this case, remains soiled, out of sync with His will, with sinners apparently entering heaven.
But this is not the New Covenant. The NC is not about merely being forgiven and having our sins forgotten/covered over. The NC is about being forgiven and then ‘going, and sinning no more’. This, generally speaking, is a process of the Divine Potter molding the clay, salvation being a work of His hands in which we participate: "
…work out your own salvation with fear and trembling, for it is God who works in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure. (Phil 2:13). In this process He truly becomes the God of man again, placing His Laws on our hearts and writing them in our minds as per Jer 31.