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Vinny213
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Thanks for responding. Can you refresh my memory on what that Aquinas qoute was?
REALLY?=Vinny213;10216629]But it is impossible for a believer to attain absoloute perfection in this life. Define perfection? What does one have to do to become perfect? God does not go by strict law, he is a loving father not a stern judge. He discplines us like a parent those, therefore he would not keep us out of heaven for small sins. Do you at least agree with my observation of Wesley and catholic teaching on justification?
I agree with you, but one must be mindful of the context. The Jews of Jesus’ day thought that the Pharisees, whose standards were higher than everyone’s, and whose dedication to their religious way of life was superabundant where the epitome of holiness. Jesus even instructed the disciples to do what the Pharisees instructed because they sat on Moses’ seat.I think the last qoute which deals with the rightousness of the pharisees does not have to do with attaining moral perfection to get to heaven but more with the fact that the pharisees were wretched sinners whose unrightousness can easily be surpassed by the common person. Jesus is just calling us to a higher standard than the sinful pharisees.
Jesus expects us to be perfect, as our heavenly father is perfect. I agree, that it is not to drive the believer to despair, but the modern notion that we cannot live without sin is a myth. Man was not made for sin, and we don’t HAVE to sin. Christ has defeated sin and death, and His grace shed abroad in our hearts is more than sufficient to keep us in a state of purity.The only thing we need to do to get to heaven is not die in a state of mortal or venial sin. There is not a particular degree of holiness that one needs to achieve to get to heaven, that will just drive the common sinner to despair because he figures he can never be good enough to get to heaven. The only thing man has to do is not die in sin or out of a state of grace.
No, it is not. This is a modern myth.Code:But it is impossible for a believer to attain absoloute perfection in this life. Define perfection?
I think you correctly identified this above, when you talked about being in a state of grace. We are perfected in Baptism, and it is our responsibility to maintain that purity.What does one have to do to become perfect?
Both things are true. God’s commandments have not been suspended or “loosened” under the New Covenant. Rather, He places His Spirit withn us to enable us to keep them.God does not go by strict law, he is a loving father not a stern judge. He discplines us like a parent those, therefore he would not keep us out of heaven for small sins.
It would be more accurate to say that Wesley retained this aspect of the Catholic faith.Do you at least agree with my observation of Wesley and catholic teaching on justification?
Yes, this is right on. Catholics don’t subscribe to sola fide-“even the demons believe”, etc. And there’s no such term in scripture as “saving faith”:“True faith is immediately effectual in securing Justification, though faith works by love and produces the fruits of righteousness, its Justifying efficacy is due solely to its embracing Christ. Saving faith according to the Bible is not only a necessary condition but is sufficient condition for Justification. Rome declares that a person could have such faith without being justified if a person commits a mortal sin, such sin deemed mortal because it kills the grace of Justification even if faith remains intact. Thus, Rome teaches that one can have faith without Justification which is a clear and persistent denial of Sola Fide.”
I found the above qoute from Michael Horton. It shares another concern of mine which has to do with how we can have saving faith and still not be justified. Please let me know if the above comment is in any way inaccurate?
Yes. The term “faith” is often used in Catholicism in similar manner to the Protestant usage, at least insofar as it’s used to describe trust, dependency, reliance on God. But the three theological virtues, faith, hope, and love have their own specific meanings in theology. They’re all supernatural virtues, meaning they’re unattainable by man unless obtained as gifts of grace. Technically, faith means intellectual assent to the truths proposed by God to us via the Church, such as belief in God, belief in the Ressurection, the virgin birth, and other such articles of faith. Faith gives us the ability to believe in-to know-what we cannot see. But even that kind of faith by itself puts us at no great advantage over, say, demons, because they believe already; due to their perspective they have no choice but to have this same knowledge regarding Christian truths.Thanks for the extensive reponse. I think justifying faith means solely trust in God’s mercy and promises in Protestant theology. But in RC church one must have hope, and love and the other virtues attached to faith in order to be united to God. So trust is not enough then? Is trust considered a theolgical virtue?
No, Vinny. Keeping the commandments is entirely possible. You are right, that one obeys the commandments by grace, through faith, but it is not a matter of “instead”. It is “through”.Code:The whole intent of that passage was to let man realize that obeying and keeping the commandments are impossible therefore man should trust in Jesus instead.
Are you seriously going to try to convince persons who have received the Apostolic faith, that what has been handed down to them is not accurate, because some disgruntled lawyer 1600 years after the fact rejects the Truth?"Hence we infer, that this reply of Christ is legal, because it was proper that the young man who inquired about the righteousness of works should first be taught that no man is accounted righteous before God unless he has fulfilled the law, 620 (which is impossible,)Code:Consider this observation from Calvin with respect to the Matthew quote:
We do not save ourselves by keeping the Law of God. We keep His commandments because of love. He first loved us, and poured HIs Spirit into us, enabling us to follow HIs commandments.that, convinced of his weakness, he might betake himself to the assistance of faith. I acknowledge, therefore, that, as God has promised the reward of eternal life to those who keep his law, we ought to hold by this way, if the weakness of our flesh did not prevent; but Scripture teaches us, that it is through our own fault that it becomes necessary for us to receive as a gift what we cannot obtain by works.
The fact that the Law does not make us righteous does not mean we are unable to keep it.Code:If it be objected, that it is in vain to hold out to us the righteousness which is in the law, (Ro 10:5,) which no man will ever be able to reach, I reply, since it is the first part of instruction, by which we are led to the righteousness which is obtained by prayer, it is far from being superfluous; and, therefore, when Paul says, that the doers of the law are justified, (Ro 2:13,) he excludes all from the righteousness of the law."
Obviously, Calvin did not read the reference of Luke to the parents of John the Baptist. It seems pretty clear that they were able to keep the Law."We have no right, therefore, to deny that the keeping of the law is righteousness, by which any man who kept the law perfectly — if there were such a man — would obtain life for himself. But as we are all destitute of the glory of God, (Ro 3:23,)Code:And this other observation:
This is also a position that contradicts Scripture.nothing but cursing will be found in the law;
This is certainly true.Code:and nothing remains for us but to betake ourselves to the undeserved gift of righteousness.
Yes, Paul does, but Paul supports that we keep the commandments of God.Code:This And therefore Paul lays down a twofold righteousness, the righteousness of the law, (Ro 10:5,) and the righteousness of faith, (Ro 10:6.) He makes the first to consist in works, and the second, in the free grace of Christ."
Yes, he is quite mistaken.You guys tell me if you think Calvin is mistaken in assuming law-keeping and holy living is impossible.
hi Vinny,=Vinny213;10225432]I noticed aquinas says that justification is merely remission of sins. This seems to contradict Trent which says that justification includes sanctiifcation and renewal of man. Is there an actual contradiction between the two or am i just imagining one?
The quote is from the Summa, VOl II, q113. Actually, according to Aquinas in the same question, grace is infused at the same time as sins are remitted. Grace is our righteousness-the righteousness Adam lost. Remission of sins is sort of the negative aspect of righteousness-the lack of unrighteousness to put it one way. But that’s still inadequate to complete mans integrity. We need grace, continuously, habitually, in order to be who we’re intended to be. And that grace derives directly from God’s love for us. In any case the only authentic righteousness for man comes from God alone-that’s what we’re here to learn. And I think this squares well with Trent, session 6 on justification. Here’s the first paragraph:I found this Aquinas quote where he makes a distinction between the two different types of justices in justification. Here it is:
….justification [properly so called] may be taken in two ways. First, according as man is made just by becoming possessed of the habit of justice; secondly, according as he does works of justice, so that in this sense justification is nothing else than the execution of justice. Now justice, like the other virtues, may denote either the acquired or the infused virtue…… The acquired virtue is caused by works; but the infused virtue [of the execution of justice] is caused by God Himself through His grace. The latter is true justice, of which we are speaking now, and in respect of which a man is said to be just before God, according to Rom. 4.2. (10)
it seems that Aquinas is distinguishing between two types of righteousness. Do you know if what he is saying here is compatible with RC teaching and Trent? What does he mean by acquired and true justice? I also realize that Catholicism makes a distinction between infused righteousness which is the formal cause of our justification and inherent and acquired righteousness which we accomplish through moral renewal in progressive justification, the cause and source of that renewal being that infused grace. Any thoughts?
I think what you are seeing here are the two sides of one coin. It is sin which separates us from God, so when our sins are remitted, they no longer stand between the human soul, and the Creator.I noticed aquinas says that justification is merely remission of sins. This seems to contradict Trent which says that justification includes sanctiifcation and renewal of man. Is there an actual contradiction between the two or am i just imagining one?
Yes, Trent is talking about initial justification. Faith alone is insufficient.I understand but what does he mean by acquired righteousness and true righteousness? He seems to be distinguishing between two different types of righteousness with the former justifying us before God and attained before any moral renewal is achieved through progressive justification. That moral renewal being the acquired justice I guess. So justification is not based on the moral renewal achieved by the believer but only by the infused habit. Also is Trent talking about initial justification in the following canon:
If any one saith, that by faith alone the impious is justified; in such wise as to mean, that nothing else is required to co-operate in order to the obtaining the grace of Justification, and that it is not in any way necessary, that he be prepared and disposed by the movement of his own will; let him be anathema."
At baptism we are placed in right relationship with God. His righteousness is poured into our hearts, and " our hearts sprinkled clean from an evil conscience and our bodies washed with pure water." Heb 10:22I understand but what does he mean by acquired righteousness and true righteousness? He seems to be distinguishing between two different types of righteousness. The former justifying us before God and attained before any moral renewal is achieved through progressive justification. That moral renewal being the acquired justice I guess. So justification is not based on the moral renewal achieved by the believer but only on the infused habit given as a gift.
No. This canon was designed to combat the one of the “5 solas”, specifically sola fide. The Apostles taught that saving faith is never “alone”. It is always accompanied by faith and hope. Faith that saves is faith that works, so ergos hagios (good works) will always accompany saving faith.Also is Trent talking about initial justification in the following canon:
If any one saith, that by faith alone the impious is justified; in such wise as to mean, that nothing else is required to co-operate in order to the obtaining the grace of Justification, and that it is not in any way necessary, that he be prepared and disposed by the movement of his own will; let him be anathema."
The same thing that the Joint Declaration is saying, essentially that we have essential agreement on initial justification.I noticed the following interesting quote about Trent which comes from Jedin’s book:
The Carmelite Vincent de Leone put the Fathers on their guard against a condemnation of the sola fide formula without supplementing it with an accurate explanation of its meaning, on the ground that it is also found, though in another sense, in the writings of many Fathers, for instance in those of St. Hilary of Poitiers, and in those of some other Catholic theologians.
What is the above trying to say?
Yes, and yet those works are instrumental in keeping him out of hell. Read the Parable of the Talents, noting what happens to the wicked and lazy servant, as well as Matt 25:31-46.The Catholic paradigm does not state that good works (by which I mean good works done out of love for God) are “required” for justification. Nor does the paradigm say that good works are “necessary” for justification. I think Jason Stellman had an earlier comment which used the word “necessary”, but I absolutely deny that are “necessary” for justification in my Catholic paradigm.
Furthermore, in no sense can a fallen man “rely on” good works for justification.
The Catholic paradigm is absolutely contrary to this, because in the paradigm, it is absolutely impossible for a human to do a good work (a work pleasing to God), before that person is justified. It’s absolutely impossible because a person can’t do a work which is pleasing to God before that person has been given the supernatural virtue of agape. And if a person were given the virtue of agape, that person would be justified, because God does not give agape until the moment of justification. In justification, the gift of the supernatural virtues of faith, hope, and love are all at once, and that person’s former sins are forgiven. This gift is totally gratuitous on the part of God. The gift is not given because of anything pleasing that the person has done, but only because of God’s goodness and love for man, a love by which He gave up his Son to suffer and die for man’s sins
All this is referring to initial justification which is achieved completely through baptism. At baptism we are justified and given a perfect justification. Good works help us to hold on to it and grow in it (progressive justification). I think we need to distiguish between justifcation and increase of justice, because if we dont it seems that we need our good works to come into a state of godliness which is only achieved by being infused with grace at baptism. So yes, justification is in a sense dependent on sanctification. But not in the sense that perfect sanctification is required for justification. But only in the sense that in the process of sanctification, a justified man will do good works, and these works will increase his justification/merit before God.