C
Cachonga
Guest
Did the Jews claim to have an “infallible” teaching magisterium? According to myth, when was the canon of the OT closed (hint - a ficitious Council at a place called Jamnia, years after Herod’s Temple was destroyed and the Jews were dispersed … again)? Did Jesus hold them accountable for what was recorded in Scripture?Agreed, but somebody had to prove which “scriptures” were from God and which ones were not. That “somebody” was the teaching authority of the Church. The bible didn’t fall from the sky. God gave inspired scriptures to His people but you don’t give names or councils who proved which books were inspired and which ones were not. There is a difference between inspiration, which, at the time, was any body’s guess, and canonization, where inspiration was proven. There were some 12 “gospels” and at least 15 “book of acts” floating around. It was human authority under the superintendence of the Holy Spirit that made the discernment of which books were from God. This is the reality and historical fact you cannot admit, because if you did, you would have to acknowledge the teaching authority of the Church.
Answers are - No, Don’t know (unless you have some documentation to back up the assertion), Yes. I’m not sure this was meant to be a thread on the Scriptures, but I would ask - if the Jews didn’t have an “infallible” authority to determine the books of Scripture, and yet Jesus held them accountable for what was in them, what makes you think we need an “infallible” authority today to tell us what the Scriptures are? As far as “canonizatoin” goes, if it was so necessary to have these books canonized, why did the Church wait until the Council of Trent in 1545 to finally, dogmaticly, “officially” close the canon? Do you think God will hold people responsible for what’s in His word who lived and died BEFORE this? What about the folks who lived and died in the 2nd century? Will they be held accountable for what the Scriptures say? Keep in mind, even Peter recognized Pauls writings as Scripture (see 2 Peter 3:15-16). Now there’s a reliable Apostolic Tradition!
If this were true, Peter would not have given the warning he did in 2 Peter 3:16.You assume every individual scripture reader knew automatically which books were inspired and which ones were not. This fantasy was dreamed up for the sole purpose of undermining Church authority.
So if the folks who “hotly debated some of the Holy books” DIDN’T recognize them as Scripture (and therefore accept or reject on that basis), how did they determine what was and wasn’t Scripture?Wrong again. The early Church hotly debated some of the Holy Books for over 300 years. A loose collection of believers with no central authority could never accomplish canonization. And the Church does not claim to have authority OVER the Scriptures, that is just a misunderstanding. The Church is a SERVANT of the scriptures, preserving and proclaiming them, without which, you would not have them.
In regard to the Church having authority over the Scriptures, I know the Church claims to be the servant of both Scripture and Tradition. But how can you be the servant of something that only YOU can “infallibly” define and interpret? For example, the Church has “infallibly” declared that the Book of Judith is God-breathed Scripture, and therefore part of the canon of the Old Testament. How does the Church explain the numerous historical errors? (actually, I’m discussing that very thing in another thread, but just to recap what has been offered - it is being compared to the parables of Jesus). The point here is, because the Church has “infallibly” declared this historically inaccurate book to be God-breathed Scripture, you MUST accept it without question. How is the Church the servant when it ALONE determines what is and what is not Scripture, as well as the interpretation of what it claims to be Scripture (this holds for Sacred Tradition as well)? Since this is not a thread on Scripture, I do not expect an answer, but just think about it!
So the Apostles are God-breathed? OK, answer this - has the Church ever, “infallibly” declared a single word spoken by these Apostles (or even Jesus) that we do not have recorded in Scripture? I think this is straying off topic, so I’ll stop here.We both know this is untrue. And the Scripures are not the only thing that is “God breathed.” See John 20:22 where the Lord “breathes” on the apostles.
As far as your test goes, is this supposed to be another set of “Questions Protestants can’t answer”? Quickly, though, here are my answers -
*]False
*]A (Yes)
*]E (Godly men led by the Holy Spirit who recognized God’s word)
*]A (they were guided by the Holy Spirit)
*]E (no) (maybe D, but I didn’t fully understand what you were saying there)
*]G (N/A)
*]False
*]2 Tim 3:16-17 and Isa 8:20 (just off the top of my head)
*]N/A
I would suggest that if you wish to pursue these questions further you start a new thread (they do not seem to be completely on topic).