Questions regarding Lent 2020?

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For anyone interested, here’s something I put together a few years ago. I think it’s accurate, of course, but perhaps there is some imprecision/erroneous argumentation here and there:

From the early centuries of the Church, there has been a practice of fasting but it has never been uniform throughout the Church and it has changed over time: the customs of time and place were essential in determining what was required. In addition to limiting the overall quantity of food, as well as the time when it could be consumed, there were also limitations on what food could be eaten. There was a combination of “fasting” and “abstinence.”

By the end of the first millennium, fasting was generally observed for the 40 (more or less) days of Lent, with a possible break from the fast on Sundays, as well as on other days throughout the year. Fasting was understood as a day on which people did not eat or drink anything until around sunset. As time went on, this was changed–more by customary practice than legislation from the hierarchy–so that “breaking the fast” at about 3 pm was deemed acceptable (so said St. Thomas Aquinas). As the years continued to progress, the time for the “break-fast” meal was moved even earlier in the day so that noon was the practical time for the meal on fast days. This migration from evening to afternoon to noon was first justified in cases of necessity. Necessity, over time, was not required. Eventually, it was acceptable to eat the meal even an hour before noon for a good reason. According to the old Catholic Encyclopedia:
According to general usage, noon is the proper time for this meal. For good reasons this hour may be legitimately anticipated. Grievous sin is not committed even though this meal is taken a full hour before noon without sufficient reason, because the substance of fasting, which consists in taking but one full meal a day, is not imperiled.
 
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Here we have the fundamental nature of fasting, as it was understood at around the turn of the 20th century: fasting limits food intake to one meal a day and the timing of this meal is not a matter of grave sin. How much could a person eat at this meal? This was never stated in the law of the Church. (Moral theologians tended to state that a full meal was 32 ounces.)

As this change in the time of the “breakfast” took place, people began to also have a small meal in the evening. This “collation”, as it was called, was first just some wine and a bit of bread. Drinking only wine might have some unwanted effects so, therefore, some bread was also allowed. By the time of the 16th century, it was customary to have fruit and even other food, as long as the total quantity did not exceed five…six…seven…eight ounces. According to St. Alphonsus (1770), eight ounces was seen as the maximum amount. (This would be 1/4 of a full, 32 ounce meal). Once again, however, local practice was variable. There was no legislated, universal norm.

During the next 75 years or so, people began to have some food even in the morning. This “frustulum”. as it was called, was allowed by “the Vatican” (the Sacred Penitentiary, to be specific) in an 1843 response which said: “Those who in the morning on fast days take a small quantity of coffee or chocolate with a piece of bread should not be disturbed.” “Chocolate”, in this context ("…coffee or chocolate…") refers to a chocolate drink, not a big chunk of chocolate. Over time, it was said that this little snack was supposed to consist of no more than two ounces of food but some authors stated that people are allowed to eat as much as they truly need in order to carry out their duties. Once again, there was no legislation from the Holy See which determined how much could be eaten in these “snacks.” In any case, I doubt people had a scale to measure their food intake.

In 1891, the Baltimore Catechism defined a fast days as: “days on which we are allowed but one full meal” (q. 1337). Question 1338 asked whether or not it is “permitted on fast days to take any food besides the one full meal” and said that it is permitted “to maintain strength, according to each one’s needs. But together these two meatless meals should not equal another full meal.” (This should sound familiar since it is how we (at least in the USA) often define what it means to fast.)

In the 1917 Code, we can see a universal law that formally allows both a morning and evening “snack”: “The law of fasting ordains that only one full meal a day be taken, but does not forbid a small amount of food in the morning and in the evening. As regards the kind of food, and the amount, that may be taken, the approved customs of one’s locality are to be observed” (canon 1251). This canon went on to say that the “main meal” could be taken in the evening and the “collation” at noon.
 
As usual, the Church did not specifically define what this “small amount” of food is. After the 1917 Code was promulgated, some authors continued to say that the two “snacks” should be limited so that, together, they do not add up to more than the full meal. The Bishops of the United States, in 1951, continued to use this sort of limitation by saying that the two meals would be “sufficient to maintain strength, may be taken according to each one’s needs; but together they should not equal another full meal” (quoted in Callan’s Moral Theology , n. 2588).

In 1966, Paul VI promulgated a document on fasting and abstinence. Therein, he repeated canon 1251 of the 1917 Code. The 1983 Code does not define what fasting is–it only says that 18-59 year-olds are bound to fast on Ash Wednesday and Good Friday and local conferences of Bishops can define it more precisely (cc. 1251-1253). The Bishops of the USA have not made any such definition, subsequent to the 1983 Code.
 
Umm… you realize that Paenitemini preceded the abrogations of the 1983 Code of Canon Law, don’t you? Therefore, the abrogations hold.
1983 Code does not abrogate Paenitemini
Therefore, the Church, while preserving—where it can be more readily observed—the custom (observed for many centuries with canonical norms) of practicing penitence also through abstinence from meat and fasting, intends to ratify with its prescriptions other forms of penitence as well, provided that it seems opportune to episcopal conferences to replace the observance of fast and abstinence with exercises of prayer and works of charity.
 
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Gorgias:
Umm… you realize that Paenitemini preceded the abrogations of the 1983 Code of Canon Law, don’t you? Therefore, the abrogations hold.
1983 Code does not abrogate Paenitemini
Re-read the canons that were posted here. If the provisions ran counter to the 1983 Code, they were abrogated.
 
If the provisions ran counter to the 1983 Code, they were abrogated.
That paragraph doesn’t run “counter” to 1983 Code. It merely states that “where it can be more readily observed” , that one follows the custom observed over the centuries and goes on in later paragraphs to say those with less means to fast (e.g. lower economic situation) should follow the new norms. If it contradicted 1983 Code it would have to say everyone must follow custom over the centuries.
 
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Even for Lent abstinence rules can certainly vary. For example, in Canada, abstinence is not required on the Fridays of Lent…another penance may be substituted. That said, I imagine you’re right that the rules for Ash Wednesday and Good Friday - fasting and abstinence - would apply to all countries.
 
Even for Lent abstinence rules can certainly vary. For example, in Canada, abstinence is not required on the Fridays of Lent…another penance may be substituted. That said, I imagine you’re right that the rules for Ash Wednesday and Good Friday - fasting and abstinence - would apply to all countries.
Unless you live in the Archdiocese of Ottawa. Archbishop Terrence Prendergast has mandated Lenten Friday abstinence from meat for his flock for the last couple of years.

He also included this in his Lenten message: “For fasting to be fruitful, you have to sacrifice something you like. Consequently, unless you really like broccoli, you cannot give it up and count that as “fasting.”
🙂
 
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