Quick Q on the Immaculate Conception

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On another thread a Catholic poster made the statment that there is no doctrine that states Mary was sinless her entire life.

Is this true or does the Immaculate Conception doctrine teach that Mary was entirely sinless throughout her whole life?

I always thought you guys believed she was completely sinless.
 
Your mis-conception is a common one 🙂 The Immaculate Conception refers to her conception, and only to that. Her time on earth after her birth is a different matter of discussion. Ihope thathelps a bit.
 
We definitely believe Mary was sinless thorughout her life. However, the Immaculate Conception is a separate dogma from that teaching. Perhaps that is what the poster meant?
 
From the “Library” section of this website:

It’s important to understand what the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception is and what it is not. Some people think the term refers to Christ’s conception in Mary’s womb without the intervention of a human father; but that is the Virgin Birth. Others think the Immaculate Conception means Mary was conceived “by the power of the Holy Spirit,” in the way Jesus was, but that, too, is incorrect. The Immaculate Conception means that Mary, whose conception was brought about the normal way, was conceived without original sin or its stain—that’s what “immaculate” means: without stain. The essence of original sin consists in the deprivation of sanctifying grace, and its stain is a corrupt nature. Mary was preserved from these defects by God’s grace; from the first instant of her existence she was in the state of sanctifying grace and was free from the corrupt nature original sin brings.

catholic.com/library/Immaculate_Conception_and_Assum.asp
 
Hi Reformed, it may have been my post that confused you, so I’ll jump in to clarify here, too. . .

Mary’s Immaculate Conception refers to her conception in her mother’s womb. At the moment she was conceived, she was saved from the stain of original sin.

By virtue of this protection and by virtue of Mary’s perfect obedience to the Father’s will, we believe that Mary remained sinless. Mary’s sinlessness is an extension of her Immculate Conception, but they are not the same doctrinally.
 
From the Catechism of the Catholic Church:
**The Immaculate Conception **
**490 **To become the mother of the Savior, Mary "was enriched by God with gifts appropriate to such a role."The angel Gabriel at the moment of the annunciation salutes her as “full of grace”. In fact, in order for Mary to be able to give the free assent of her faith to the announcement of her vocation, it was necessary that she be wholly borne by God’s grace.
**491 **Through the centuries the Church has become ever more aware that Mary, “full of grace” through God, was redeemed from the moment of her conception. That is what the dogma of the Immaculate Conception confesses, as Pope Pius IX proclaimed in 1854:
The most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the first moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Savior of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of original sin.
**492 **The “splendor of an entirely unique holiness” by which Mary is “enriched from the first instant of her conception” comes wholly from Christ: she is “redeemed, in a more exalted fashion, by reason of the merits of her Son”.The Father blessed Mary more than any other created person “in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places” and chose her “in Christ before the foundation of the world, to be holy and blameless before him in love”.
493 The Fathers of the Eastern tradition call the Mother of God “the All-Holy” (Panagia), and celebrate her as “free from any stain of sin, as though fashioned by the Holy Spirit and formed as a new creature”. **By the grace of God **Mary remained free of every personal sin her whole life long.
Now does this make Mary some kind of godess as anti-Catholics charge? **Not at all! **She was merely a recipient of God’s grace, by which he can do anything he chooses!
 
We definitely believe Mary was sinless thorughout her life. However, the Immaculate Conception is a separate dogma from that teaching. Perhaps that is what the poster meant?
Why did Mary bring doves to sacrifice at the temple in luke2:24?
 
Why did Mary bring doves to sacrifice at the temple in luke2:24?
Giving birth rendered Mary ritually unclean. Which is not to say there was any sin or fault on her part, giving birth to a child is hardly a crime. Simply that it was the law that no woman could attend at the Temple for forty days after giving birth. And that they had to present the sacrifice to honour the occasion when they WERE again permitted to attend.

Additionally she did it for the same reason that Jesus was baptised by John - that it was ‘fitting for all righteousness’ - in other words set a good example for us and those around them 😃
 
Giving birth rendered Mary ritually unclean. Which is not to say there was any sin or fault on her part, giving birth to a child is hardly a crime. Simply that it was the law that no woman could attend at the Temple for forty days after giving birth. And that they had to present the sacrifice to honour the occasion when they WERE again permitted to attend.

Additionally she did it for the same reason that Jesus was baptised by John - that it was ‘fitting for all righteousness’ - in other words set a good example for us and those around them 😃
Actually it was a sin offering leviticus 12.
But if Mary was sinless what could the offering be?
 
Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma by Ludwigg Ott says:
**Mary was conceived without stain of Original sin. (De fide.)
From her conception Mary was free from all motions of concupiscence. (Sent. communis.)
In consequence of a Special Privilege of Grace from God, Mary was free from every personal sin during her whole life. (Sent. fidei proxima.) She was immune from all sin mortal and venial. **
from here List of Catholic Dogmas

God Bless!
 
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