F
fakename
Guest
I was wondering, if all catholics came to a unanimous agreement independently would that be magisterial? Would it be non-fallible or infallible?
yeah, is that basically the same as magisterial?Apart from the successor of Peter?
No.
What your prob. thinking of here is:
Catechism
92 “The whole body of the faithful. . . cannot err in matters of belief. This characteristic is shown in the supernatural appreciation of faith (sensus fidei) on the part of the whole people, when, from the bishops to the last of the faithful, they manifest a universal consent in matters of faith and morals.”
This is in the matter of their *“belief” *not of teaching…yeah, is that basically the same as magisterial?
Please elaborate on the differences between teaching authority and belief.It is more a question of the various kinds of assent we are to give…
For example some things one must give the assent of Faith…or other definitive assent based on Faith in the Holy Spirit…some things we give the religious submission of intellect and will…
It is not about dissent…but rather assent
We profess our Faith and hold fast to it.
And of course there is also then “faith seeking understanding…”
The Church teaches that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.Please elaborate on the differences between teaching authority and belief.
Also, I’m really asking this here, what is the level of authority that licit dissent has? Such a thing does exist.
But one can dissent by adhering to the teaching of a bishop. But a bishop teaches magisterially. So dissent has to have some authority?As to dissent…it does not have any authority.
Authority is in the Teaching office of Church"But one can dissent by adhering to the teaching of a bishop. But a bishop teaches magisterially. So dissent has to have some authority?
I speak here of licit dissent, not illicit dissent.Authority is in the Teaching office of Church"
… not dissent.
But while the teaching of a local Bishop certainly has authority…it is not that he can just teach what he wants…
Now is it possible to not follow something a local Bishop says? To give a clear example…there are have been Bishops in history who embraced all manner of heresy …denied something of the Catholic Faith …say the reality that “Jesus is truly the Son of God”.
He was …teaching contrary to the Catholic Faith…he is not here in communion with Peter in his teaching.
But it is not that there is dissent here …but rather assent…assent to the teachings of the Catholic Church.
They are the “local” bishop of their respective diocese’s …So given that two bishops can lawfully disagree, and at the same time be teaching lawfully, then are both teachings magisterial?
I think licit dissent is more than a prudential judgment. Licit dissent is when someone comes to a different conclusion than the magisterium on a non-fallible doctrine, with the aid of scripture, higher authority, or tradition. Assuming that a bishop can teach his licit dissent (which must be the case or else lay people would never have the choice to decide b/t which bishop was correct in such a matter, when they evidently do), what authority is his teachings?They are the “local” bishop of their respective diocese’s …
If one has some particular norm in place in his diocese that is not contrary to the Church etc …but is “within his authority”…that is how he prudently judges to direct the matter in his diocese.
Another Bishop may have a different “legit” approach in his diocese.
Prudential judgments can vary from Bishop to Bishop
But of course if say a Bishops wakes up some morning and starts issuing orders that abortion is ok…or contraception etc…well then he is off his rocker and not teaching authoritatively there at all…
I was referring in that last post to various things of a prudential nature…disciplines etc.I think licit dissent is more than a prudential judgment. Licit dissent is when someone comes to a different conclusion than the magisterium on a non-fallible doctrine, with the aid of scripture, higher authority, or tradition. Assuming that a bishop can teach his licit dissent (which must be the case or else lay people would never have the choice to decide b/t which bishop was correct in such a matter, when they evidently do), what authority is his teachings?