R
Rodrigo_Bivar
Guest
I’d like to make the following point. The parallelism between the Arabic Infancy Gospel and Surahs 19:29-31 and 3:46 is plainly evident. There are three logical reasons for this:
Joseph_Alison speculates that the reason why the talking baby Jesus tale was included in the Quran was because it convinced the Jews of the miracle of the virgin birth, rather than just Mary’s word. This is mere speculation, but we can both play the speculation game. One might ask Joseph if Allah knew that enabling Jesus to speak from the cradle would convince the Jews or not. That tactic obviously failed as Jesus was never considered the Messiah from birth but only when he began his ministry. This is clear from the NT. Peter was the first follower and that was only in Jesus’s adulthood, not infancy.
So, did Allah know that tactic would fail? If he did, then why do it? If not, then he is no God? See the paradox?
Also note that the Sahih Bukhari hadith 4:55:645 has Muhammad claiming three babies spoke. However, it is clear the other two talking babies weren’t the result of virgin births. So, why that explanation for Jesus?
I know I’ve made some pretty subtle points which I hope Joseph_Alison will take the time to think about. In the mean time, if I might trouble him for a re-evaluation of the meaning of masih with two questions:
Narrated Abu Huraira : Allah’s Apostle used to invoke (Allah): “Allahumma ini a’udhu bika min 'adhabi-l-Qabr, wa min 'adhabi-nnar, wa min fitnati-l-mahya wa-lmamat, wa min fitnati-l-masih ad-dajjal. (O Allah! I seek refuge with you from the punishment in the grave and from the punishment in the Hell fire and from the afflictions of life and death, and the afflictions of Al-Masih Ad-Dajjal.”
Gracias y hasta luego,
Rodrigo
- The Quran has ‘corrected the omission’ of the talking baby Jesus tale from the New Testament.
- The Quran has ‘corrected the consigning of the tale to the apocrypha,’ and that the Arabic Infancy Gospel should be included in the canonical NT.
- Muhammad heard the story and mistakenly included it in the Quran, thinking it to be canonical and not apocryphal.
Joseph_Alison speculates that the reason why the talking baby Jesus tale was included in the Quran was because it convinced the Jews of the miracle of the virgin birth, rather than just Mary’s word. This is mere speculation, but we can both play the speculation game. One might ask Joseph if Allah knew that enabling Jesus to speak from the cradle would convince the Jews or not. That tactic obviously failed as Jesus was never considered the Messiah from birth but only when he began his ministry. This is clear from the NT. Peter was the first follower and that was only in Jesus’s adulthood, not infancy.
So, did Allah know that tactic would fail? If he did, then why do it? If not, then he is no God? See the paradox?
Also note that the Sahih Bukhari hadith 4:55:645 has Muhammad claiming three babies spoke. However, it is clear the other two talking babies weren’t the result of virgin births. So, why that explanation for Jesus?
I know I’ve made some pretty subtle points which I hope Joseph_Alison will take the time to think about. In the mean time, if I might trouble him for a re-evaluation of the meaning of masih with two questions:
- How do you explain “al-masih ad-dajjal”? What does masih mean there?
Narrated Abu Huraira : Allah’s Apostle used to invoke (Allah): “Allahumma ini a’udhu bika min 'adhabi-l-Qabr, wa min 'adhabi-nnar, wa min fitnati-l-mahya wa-lmamat, wa min fitnati-l-masih ad-dajjal. (O Allah! I seek refuge with you from the punishment in the grave and from the punishment in the Hell fire and from the afflictions of life and death, and the afflictions of Al-Masih Ad-Dajjal.”
- How do you explain ‘masih ibne Maryam’?
Gracias y hasta luego,
Rodrigo