S
st_felicity
Guest
Here’s the details…
A baptised non-Catholic person seeking to enter into full communion with the Catholic Church was married to an unbaptised person in a Protestant church wedding, but subsequently obtained a divorce.
The former spouse of the non-Catholic is still living.
The Candidate married a Catholic in a Protestant church wedding.
The Candidate was not ready to obtain an annulment, but the Catholic spouse wished to have the marriage “blessed” so that the Catholic could receive communion (unsure if this was actually a convalidation ???).
Priest performed some rite, and the Catholic participates fully in liturgy.
Non-Catholic spouse now wants to become Catholic this Easter. There is a new priest at the parish who has told the couple that an annulment of the first marriage is not necessary for the non-Catholic to receive the sacraments this Easter based upon the actions of the former priest.
How can this be correct?
A baptised non-Catholic person seeking to enter into full communion with the Catholic Church was married to an unbaptised person in a Protestant church wedding, but subsequently obtained a divorce.
The former spouse of the non-Catholic is still living.
The Candidate married a Catholic in a Protestant church wedding.
The Candidate was not ready to obtain an annulment, but the Catholic spouse wished to have the marriage “blessed” so that the Catholic could receive communion (unsure if this was actually a convalidation ???).
Priest performed some rite, and the Catholic participates fully in liturgy.
Non-Catholic spouse now wants to become Catholic this Easter. There is a new priest at the parish who has told the couple that an annulment of the first marriage is not necessary for the non-Catholic to receive the sacraments this Easter based upon the actions of the former priest.
How can this be correct?