J
jim1130
Guest
Peace.
Last night, while re-reading “The Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma” by Dr. Ludwig Ott, this statement caught my attention (paraphrased, and I pray that I am paraphrasing correctly): The use of the words “body” and “blood” by Christ in John 6 (and the synoptic Gospels, too), are not figurative because nowhere else in the Bible are the words “body” and “blood” used/interpreted figuratively. Is this correct? If this is incorrect then what are the OT and/or NT chapters and verses that show that the words “body” and/or “blood” are used figuratively?
I want to use this defense against non-Catholics who deny the Real Presence, but want to make sure that I (1) interpreted Ott’s statement accurately and (2) am not embarrassed and refuted.
Please help.
Peace.
Last night, while re-reading “The Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma” by Dr. Ludwig Ott, this statement caught my attention (paraphrased, and I pray that I am paraphrasing correctly): The use of the words “body” and “blood” by Christ in John 6 (and the synoptic Gospels, too), are not figurative because nowhere else in the Bible are the words “body” and “blood” used/interpreted figuratively. Is this correct? If this is incorrect then what are the OT and/or NT chapters and verses that show that the words “body” and/or “blood” are used figuratively?
I want to use this defense against non-Catholics who deny the Real Presence, but want to make sure that I (1) interpreted Ott’s statement accurately and (2) am not embarrassed and refuted.
Please help.
Peace.