A
andrewstx
Guest
Last night on EWTN there was a convert from an Orthodox church who said his Orthodox mother was rebaptised Catholic as her life came to a close.
What really confused me is that I have always been told that Orthodox sacraments are considered as valid as our own.
So why was she baptised outright, if thier sacraments are valid then why?
She was not baptised conditionally, it was as if she had never been baptised at all.
What really confused me is that I have always been told that Orthodox sacraments are considered as valid as our own.
So why was she baptised outright, if thier sacraments are valid then why?
She was not baptised conditionally, it was as if she had never been baptised at all.