Reconciling Scholasticism with the modern world

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Broadly speaking, over the last sixty years if you take a survey philosophy class in most public universities they will pretty much jump over the scholastic philosophers, with perhaps only a passing mention. The reason, I think, is that scholastic philosophers are seen as defending a proposition already accepted. We may admire the way an attorney can make an argument defending a position. However, few of us would confuse lawyers with philosophers.

Scholastic writers are often studied as part of comparative religion and not philosophy. And although it is true that many later thinkers were still Christian, we are generally able to distinguish between their religious and philosophical or scientific writings. The scholastic tradition, I think, is generally not seen as being independent, but as more specifically defenders of the faith.

I will quickly point out a problem just to show that I am aware of it. I think about some issue and come to a conclusion. When I explain my conclusion to another I am by definition defending it. This is true even if I completely recreate my thinking process as it existed prior to reaching the conclusion. That is I may not actually be able to be completely independent. But I think religious philosophers, and specifically scholastic ones, are seen as more biased. Their role is seen as specifically to defend a presumed correct conclusion.

Now we get to the problem of power. Even before Foucault people were aware of a relationship between power and what we may broadly call knowledge production. That is ideas that support the dominant ideology and power structure are generally rewarded. Those that do not are generally either punished or ignored. Most people would accept that philosophical arguments supporting, for example, Nazism inside Germany in the 1930s or Stalinism inside the USSR in the 1950s could not considered purely intellectual or independent. There might be extreme consequences for arguments that did not support them.
By the way, it is not my intent to equate the Catholic Church with either Nazism or Stalinism. I am simply using them to illustrate a point about power.

During the middle ages the Catholic Church was at the height of its power. It seems likely that arguments supporting that, at the time, dominant ideology would have been rewarded, and ones opposing it would not have fared well. There would have been consequences for opposing it. It seems unlikely, if he had lived at that time, that after proclaiming “God is dead” Nietzsche would have survived long. Although this may indicate a mistake in assigning the excesses of the inquisition to a much longer historical period.

Still I do think that the problems of power relationships and also of seeming to be only defending an already accepted conclusion present problems for the modern thinker. This view would be considered anti-religious by many in this forum. And I suppose that from a certain perspective it is.

Personally, I think there is much value in studying these Christian pre-enlightenment intellectuals. Although I choose not to identify myself here with any religion or philosophical school, I am not anti religion. But I think reconciling the place of scholastic and other religious base intellectual traditions within a modern liberal world is difficult. We live in a world that wants to separate religion from politics, and in fact all intellectual spheres. And many people seem to be fighting battles long past. The crusades, inquisition, and thirty years war were quite a while. And although he gets a fair share of media coverage, the pope in not, by along shot, what he used to be.

There are many here who seemed seem well versed in scholastic teachings. It seems that many of you are unhappy with the marginalization of christian philosophy in the modern western intellectual canon.
Are any of the concerns of the modern secular thinker valid? Is it possible to reconcile the general criticisms of the Scholastic tradition, so that that intellectual tradition is not seen as completely incompatible with the modern secular intellectual world. Is it possible for religious based philosophies of that historical period to be taught along side later, and often more secular ones, in a way that addresses the concerns of all parties.
 
The scholastic method is seen as too challenging for modern intellectuals. I have yet to hear of a modern Philosopher doing a Quodlibetal or anything similar.
Still I do think that the problems of power relationships and also of seeming to be only defending an already accepted conclusion present problems for the modern thinker. This view would be considered anti-religious by many in this forum. And I suppose that from a certain perspective it is.
Many Scholastic Philosophers disagreed, often even with the Church itself. Some examples are as follows;

Thomas Aquinas and the argument over the Immaculate Conception
William of Ockham and Michael of Cesena’s argument for apostolic poverty (going so far as to call the Pope a Heretic)
Count Pico della Mirandola’s argument for Christian Universalism within the 900 theses
Duns Scotus arguments for Univocity; and arguments for Divorce.
Gratian’s argument against the consumation of Marraige.
Henry of Ghent’s arguments against the rights of the Judiciary.
William of Alnwicks favor of Secular taxation.

Clearly there are examples where Philosophers argue against the Church, it was only when the arguments were theological in nature that they were punished by the Church; such as the case with Count Pico della Mirandola.
Is it possible to reconcile the general criticisms of the Scholastic tradition, so that that intellectual tradition is not seen as completely incompatible with the modern secular intellectual world. Is it possible for religious based philosophies of that historical period to be taught along side later, and often more secular ones, in a way that addresses the concerns of all parties.
What are the “general criticisms of the Scholastic tradition”? Other than some of the Philosophers were Theologians and Clergy. There is no “religious base” in Scholasticism, if there was then there would have been no reason for people such as Aquinas, Anselm, Ockham and Scotus to put forward arguments for the existence of God – nothing is presupposed in Scholastic thought.
 
First I should say that I am referring only the scholastic tradition within the church and not to the method inquiry. I alluded to the problem of arguing positions one does not hold. Marx would not argue historical materialism if he did not believe it. It is very difficult to argue positions one opposes. For example, if I was arguing with you that we should bring back slavery and I did not think you capable of winning the antislavery side; I would walk to it like leading a duck with bread crumbs. Presenting both sides of an argument yourself is even harder. Especially for things a person cares deeply about and believes. Which I would assume most Christians would about the existence of God. Such discourses almost always contain straw men.
When I was a kid medieval Christian philosophers were dismissed with laughing references to angles on the heads of pins or obsessions about the missionary position. That is they were not considered to have anything serious to contribute
You seem to know a great deal about this area. If you would agree that religious philosophers are not given a fair shake in academia, what would you suggest is the cause of that I don’ want to conclude, as I think some here might, that it is simply because liberals hate God. I am suggesting that they are seen as in some intellectual way as being different than more modern thinkers in ways that have permitted the marginallization and disregard by modern thinkers. Or do you just think they are out of favor because they are not read and their arguments are presumed but not really know
 
It is very difficult to argue positions one opposes.
Most Scholastic philosophers argued both sides of the argument; for example taking the closest book in reach; Scotus Ordinatio II. d3, Part 1 QQ6 142-212 Scotus argues both sides of the case for the question “Is a material substance individual through some entity that by itself determines the nature to singularity”.

He starts with Four arguments for the negative; citing Aristotle in *Metaphysics VII, *and On the Soul.

He then delives eight arguments for the positive, Citing Godfrey, VII. 5, Porphryy, and Boethius On Division; and again Aristotle from Physics I.

Following this there are thirteen arguments that reject these positions; citing Plato, Aristotle, Averroes and Godfrey.

Following this is the presentation of Scotus own theory in four arguments; to the affirmative. This is supported by a further twenty four arguments.

Scotus then respondes to the arguments for other peoples theories in seven arguments; and a further eleven arguments specifically centered on Aristotles claims; answering potential objections or counter-claims.

It is clear from this that Scholastic Philosophers were able to understand and comprehend the arguments of other thinkers; and critically present them in the context and presence of other arguments; and then cross referance; analyze and posit their own theories; followed by counterarguments and refutations. At least this was the critical form of the more philosophical scholastics such as Scotus; Mayrone and Ockham. Aquinas is more traditionally known as a speculative philosopher; and is more of a theologian than a philosopher; so it is no surprise that his philosophy and theology are closer.
If you would agree that religious philosophers are not given a fair shake in academia, what would you suggest is the cause of that I don’ want to conclude, as I think some here might, that it is simply because liberals hate God.
Most philosophers who were scholastics did not presuppose God; although some (namely infinite being equivocalists and analagorical predicators) made a distinction about the nature of reality with regards to finitely distinct entitys; although not all philosophers believed this (some were more univocal).

I would suggest; politely; that modern philosophers are either lazy or unwilling to present the arguments of the other side objectivelly; as well as completely unable to conduct quodlibetals; where for periods of a few days a teacher had to answer spontaneous questionson the subject matter. I doubt many modern philosophers have the ability to defend unannounced challenges to their positions on the spot; and to do so without any preperation and over a period of many days. These two reasons are at the heart of the decline into intellectual sloth that gave birth to the “enlightenment”; and consequently allowed for uncritical and speculative philosophy to be conducted by just about anyone with an opinion.
Or do you just think they are out of favor because they are not read and their arguments are presumed but not really know.
Although; being charitable I might presuppose that at least some modern philosophers have not read the Scholastics; and merely avoid them. However; this is tantamount to sloth because most good philosophy students who specialise in scholastic thought will no doubt have been mis-fortunate enough to have read the works of people such as Husserl; Kierkeggard; Comte and other such “thinkers”.

With the tentative exemption of Kant I cannot think of a single “great” philosopher who has made groundbreaking contributions to knowlege since Count Pico della Mirandola.
 
In my opinion, people like Foucault and Nietzsche love to make lots of assertions without any rigorous logical process. On the other hand, the scholastics were sometimes excessively logical.

In my opinion, most people don’t really pay attention to the scholastics because they think their logic and metaphysics to be antiquated. The scholastics had strong Aristotelian or Platonic undertones, which most moderns think to be vague, meaningless and useless. Ideas like “substance”, “form”, “essence”, “souls”, and “final causes” simply do not ring well with modern ears. All of the scholastics shared some basic metaphysical, logical, and epistemological ideas which are rarely accepted amongst contemporary philosophers.
 
I have yet to hear of a modern Philosopher doing a Quodlibetal or anything similar.
I heard the Ohio State University philosophy department did one circa 2002. I would love to see a video of one, maybe even in Latin!
 
I would suggest; politely; that modern philosophers are either lazy or unwilling to present the arguments of the other side objectivelly; as well as completely unable to conduct quodlibetals; where for periods of a few days a teacher had to answer spontaneous questionson the subject matter. I doubt many modern philosophers have the ability to defend unannounced challenges to their positions on the spot; and to do so without any preperation and over a period of many days. These two reasons are at the heart of the decline into intellectual sloth that gave birth to the “enlightenment”; and consequently allowed for uncritical and speculative philosophy to be conducted by just about anyone with an opinion.
You are very right. I actually think science would be so much more progressed had the Enlightenment not eschewed God. The Middle Ages were the bedrock for modern science; we’re still reaping the fruits of their efforts today.
 
I doubt they can be reconciled. I recently read an article by a medieval scholar (I think his name was Joseph Bottum) who divided recent history into medieval, modern, and postmodern. He identifies the beginning of the modern period with the enlightenment about 300 years ago, when leading philosophers decided that we should jettison the idea of God and base knowledge and morality upon human reason alone. Today’s postmodernists are unanimous that 300 years of modernism has failed. It has not produced a viable morality, it has not produced a consistent way of identifying knowledge, its social systems have collapsed (particulary Marxism), and WWI and II shattered the illusion of fraternal harmony. The postmoderns and medeivalists have one thing in common. Thinkers like St. Thomas Aquinas said that without God, there would be no way to identify good and evil. They went further and said there would be no knowledge, for knowledge demands a source of truth that human reason cannot provide. The postmodernists say exactly the same thing, except in a more chilling way. They do not reject the original premise of modernism, that we know nothing about God. What they do say, given the collapse of modernity, is that there is no such thing as morality, and no such thing as knowledge. This is exactly what Aquinas predicted.
 
When I was a kid medieval Christian philosophers were dismissed with laughing references to angles on the heads of pins or obsessions about the missionary position. That is they were not considered to have anything serious to contribute
That’s a pretty good indicator right there of the ‘grounds’ for the modern rejection of medieval Christian philosophers - abject, deplorable ignorance.
You seem to know a great deal about this area. If you would agree that religious philosophers are not given a fair shake in academia, what would you suggest is the cause of that I don’ want to conclude, as I think some here might, that it is simply because liberals hate God. I am suggesting that they are seen as in some intellectual way as being different than more modern thinkers in ways that have permitted the marginallization and disregard by modern thinkers. Or do you just think they are out of favor because they are not read and their arguments are presumed but not really know
Power remains a powerful element determining “the modern canon” - hopefully you recognize that. All professional academics are specialists and most of them are simply very ignorant of medieval philosophy. Many are also very ignorant of modern continental philosophy, which tends to be more concerned with its own history. Many professional analytic philosophers think that “history of philosophy” refers to the study of early twentieth century philosophy and they effectively assume that if it wasn’t written in the last 20 years, it’s probably not relevant any more. Naturally, then, they will have a very hard time incorporating medieval philosophy into their thinking and teaching, and their students will also be illiterate when it comes to medieval philosophy.
 
Power remains a powerful element determining “the modern canon” - hopefully you recognize that. All professional academics are specialists and most of them are simply very ignorant of medieval philosophy. Many are also very ignorant of modern continental philosophy, which tends to be more concerned with its own history. Many professional analytic philosophers think that “history of philosophy” refers to the study of early twentieth century philosophy and they effectively assume that if it wasn’t written in the last 20 years, it’s probably not relevant any more. Naturally, then, they will have a very hard time incorporating medieval philosophy into their thinking and teaching, and their students will also be illiterate when it comes to medieval philosophy.
Fortunately there is an emergence of a large number of good translations of Scholastic work in the last fifty years. So anyone interested in Scholasticism in general can get access to the majority of works; although it is quite hard starting out - the hard work definately pays off.
 
I doubt they can be reconciled. I recently read an article by a medieval scholar (I think his name was Joseph Bottum) who divided recent history into medieval, modern, and postmodern. He identifies the beginning of the modern period with the enlightenment about 300 years ago, when leading philosophers decided that we should jettison the idea of God and base knowledge and morality upon human reason alone. Today’s postmodernists are unanimous that 300 years of modernism has failed. It has not produced a viable morality, it has not produced a consistent way of identifying knowledge, its social systems have collapsed (particulary Marxism), and WWI and II shattered the illusion of fraternal harmony. The postmoderns and medeivalists have one thing in common. Thinkers like St. Thomas Aquinas said that without God, there would be no way to identify good and evil.
Really? He said that? I don’t think so; he said there is a natural law, and wouldn’t this be knowable with natural reason alone? (Cf. this article in the Summa.)
They went further and said there would be no knowledge, for knowledge demands a source of truth that human reason cannot provide.
No, this is fideism; St. Thomas said that there is natural reason. Without God and faith in Him, it is deficient, though.
The postmodernists say exactly the same thing, except in a more chilling way. They do not reject the original premise of modernism, that we know nothing about God. What they do say, given the collapse of modernity, is that there is no such thing as morality, and no such thing as knowledge. This is exactly what Aquinas predicted.
 
Really? He said that? I don’t think so; he said there is a natural law, and wouldn’t this be knowable with natural reason alone? This is fideism; St. Thomas said that there is natural reason. Without God and faith in Him, it is deficient, though.
I must admit I did not investigate the author’s claim that medieval theologians such as Aquinas taught that without God there would be no morality or knowledge. I looked up the Summa reference you provided and found the following.
…the light of natural reason, whereby we discern what is good and what is evil, which is the function of the natural law, is nothing else than an imprint on us of the Divine light. It is therefore evident that the natural law is nothing else than the rational creature’s participation of the eternal law.
I intrepret this as supporting the claim that Aquinas believed morality would not exist without God. Perhaps our disagreement is over what Aquinas means by natural reason. Under the heading “Good”, the Catholic Encyclopedia states:
St. Thomas starts from the Aristotelean principle that being and the good are objectively one. Being conceived as desirable is the good. The good differs from the true in this, that, while both are objectively nothing else than being, the good is being considered as the object of appetite, desire, and will, the true is being a the object of the intellect. God, the Supreme Being and the source of all other being is consequently the Supreme Good, and the goodness of creatures results from the diffusion of His goodness.
This suggests that whatever natural reason can grasp originates in the divine. I don’t think Bottum was saying that moderns are incapable of using natural reason to discover truth. I think he was describing how the rejection of God has made the modern world blind to many divine truths. Material science is doing well but it does not provide enough knowledge to construct a viable society. It is not fideism to say that our reason is becoming atrophied by restricting it to things like engineering, pharmaceutical research and computer software. We are meant to use it to explore the breathtaking beauty of God.
 
I intrepret this as supporting the claim that Aquinas believed morality would not exist without God.
That is only true in the trivial sense in which nothing would exist without God.
This suggests that whatever natural reason can grasp originates in the divine. I don’t think Bottum was saying that moderns are incapable of using natural reason to discover truth. I think he was describing how the rejection of God has made the modern world blind to many divine truths. Material science is doing well but it does not provide enough knowledge to construct a viable society. It is not fideism to say that our reason is becoming atrophied by restricting it to things like engineering, pharmaceutical research and computer software. We are meant to use it to explore the breathtaking beauty of God.
I assumed Bottum was referring to a much more fundamental undermining of the notions of truth and morality as such… (I don’t know.)
 
That is only true in the trivial sense in which nothing would exist without God.
True enough, but we are arguing with the modernist who claims that there is no God yet is aware that modernists exist, the world exists, and even immaterial things such as morality exist. This fellow imagines that an absolute standard of goodness can be found solely within his own mind. What Aquinas has to say about the source of goodness and morality is trivial to us, but to him it may be a revelation.
 
I intrepret this as supporting the claim that Aquinas believed morality would not exist without God. Perhaps our disagreement is over what Aquinas means by natural reason.
No, I think we weren’t distinguishing between believing God doesn’t exist and whether He really doesn’t. Atheists fall into the former case since even their existence depends on God regardless of their beliefs. The latter case is the trivial one Betterave mentioned:
That is only true in the trivial sense in which nothing would exist without God.
True enough, but we are arguing with the modernist who claims that there is no God yet is aware that modernists exist, the world exists, and even immaterial things such as morality exist. This fellow imagines that an absolute standard of goodness can be found solely within his own mind.
So basically the modernist denies the supernatural? This makes sense; it’s what Pope St. Pius X (whose feast day is today) says about them in his encyclical Pascendi.
What Aquinas has to say about the source of goodness and morality is trivial to us, but to him it may be a revelation.
(Everything in St. Thomas’s Summa should be trivial to those who have a faith as strong as his, but this in no way lessens his contributions to the Church as Her “Angelic Doctor.”)
 
No, I think we weren’t distinguishing between believing God doesn’t exist and whether He really doesn’t. Atheists fall into the former case since even their existence depends on God regardless of their beliefs.
Similarly, morality may be *ontologically *dependent on God, i.e.:

M → G
or
~G → ~M

without *belief *in morality being *logically *dependent on *belief *in God, i.e.:

it is not necessarily true that: B(~G) → B(~M)
or
it is possible that: B(~G) & B(M)
 
I am suggesting that they are seen as in some intellectual way as being different than more modern thinkers in ways that have permitted the marginallization and disregard by modern thinkers. Or do you just think they are out of favor because they are not read and their arguments are presumed but not really know
I wanted to add that there are many ‘modern thinkers’ who are medievalists and who have no problem engaging medieval thinkers with modern thinkers in perfectly ‘modern’ analytic terms. I’m not sure, but I think that medieval philosophy has already started to become less marginalized outside of Catholic philosophical circles.
 
So basically the modernist denies the supernatural? This makes sense; it’s what Pope St. Pius X (whose feast day is today) says about them in his encyclical Pascendi.
Thanks for the reference to Pascendi. Sounds like perfect reading for his feastday. 👍
 
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