R
Ruqx
Guest
It does not have to be “quantified” in a precise manner. It would be enough to prove (really prove) that without the suffering even God is unable to “lift” us up into that “glory”.Again, you’re misconstruing things. There is no ‘glory’ in the ‘suffering’. The suffering is part of the state of being human, and the end result (eventually) is ‘glory’. I’m not asserting strict causation, as if a particular quantum of ‘glory’ is caused by a particular quantum of ‘suffering’.
Because in all the specific cases there is a logical causation between the “suffering” and the “glorious” result. And it can be shown that without the workout there is no gain in strength. Where is the causative relationship between the suffering of the “teething” and the glory in heaven?Then where’s the insistence that we must ID particular specifics come from?
There is no difference between actively causing and passively allowing suffering IF the agent has the power to prevent the suffering.No; that’s a non sequitur. You’re asserting that the intentional infliction of particular suffering (you beating your children) is the same as allowing physical human nature to take its course.
There is no need. The default position is that suffering is “bad”, and only the apologist can show otherwise.Again, you’re asserting ‘unnecessary’ without any demonstration that this is the case.
Small children or mentally retarded people are not the “measuring rod”… so to speak. Only normal people can make the decision if that “suffering” is desirable - “for THEM”.‘Unwanted’ is irrelevant, I think I’d claim. Parents subject their children to experiences that the children don’t want – all the time! – but which, in the parents’ view, is in their best interest.
Absolutely! If you present a “general” solution, and I can show one specific instance where it does not apply, then your general argument is null and void. Any kind of counter example invalidates the positive claim.You’re attempting to use a special case to disprove the general case.
But it is. There are two possible “defenses” for God, and both lead to a logical contradiction (1. God is unaware or the suffering and 2. God is unable to do anything about it). God is aware of the suffering, so he cannot claim ignorance. God is omnipotent, so he can do everything except logically contradictory actions. God is omni-benevolent so he acts in the best interest od everyone involved. So the only “defense” that remains is that God cannot instantiate the world without suffering, because it would lead to a logical contradiction. Where is the contradiction?That He ‘can’ do what He wishes doesn’t imply that what He doesn’t do is evidence of lack of beatitude on His part.
So the question is still there: “how can one reconcile the undeniable pain and suffering of a teething infant with God’s benevolence?” Personally, I came to the conclusion that God’s omnipotence could overcome any and all kinds of sufferings. But that claim would lead to a too long discussion. So I am sticking to my guns, and ask about the “problem of teething”, and NOT the “problem of evil” in general.
If you are interested, there is a thread opened by “e_c” (forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=1022579), where I gave a detailed analysis of the “problem of teething”.