Refute the ThirtyNine Articles?

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Don’t Catholics also intend to refer to the universal Church when they use the word “Catholic”?
Yes, but we have a different definition of “universal” than protestants.

When the various protestant churches wanted to use the Creed, they had to re-define the meaning of the word “Catholic” to make it work.

They came up with the idea that the “universal” church was the collective body of Baptized people, using Paul’s analogy of the mystical Body of Christ. This idea is a protestant invention.

The Catholic Church does not accept this interpretation. For one thing, it just doesn’t work - Paul was using the analogy of a body to stress the importance of unity within the Church. Coming along 1500 years later and saying that it somehow explains the validity of disunity is far-fetched. It’s really the opposite of what Paul was saying.

The Catholic Church has always defined “universal” as meaning “for all people, in all places, at all times.” The Catholic Church uses the term Catholic exclusively to refer to Churches with Apostolic foundation who have not otherwise forfeited their legitimacy (as the Anglicans did). The Catholic Church does not consider protestants to be, in any way, Catholic.

(Many protestant communities also had to redefine the word “apostolic.” Suddenly it means “preach an Apostolic (ie, Biblical) doctrine.”)
Catholics and Protestants are arguing over the definition of the word Catholic. They aren’t talking about two completely different things that happen to be spelled with the same letters.
Yes we are. Catholics don’t have a definition of “Catholic” which would admit protestants. Protestants have a definition of “Catholic” which would admit both. You can’t say it’s the same concept.
Before the schism Anglicanism wasn’t “parallel with Catholicism.” It was part of Catholicism.
If, by “schism,” you mean the excommunication of Henry-8, then I would point out that the Anglican Church continued to be Catholic for several decades afterwards. They would still be Catholic today if they hadn’t screwed up their Orders (thanks, Cranmer!).

The Anglicans introduced a defect of form (and likely intent) into their Orders, and persisted in this error for more than a century. By the time they fixed it, they had no valid Bishops left (even though they had (and still have) valid Apostolic Succession).
Your statement demonstrates the problems with the Catholic/catholic distinction. You seem to think of Catholicism as something that even before the schism characterized the “Latin” expressions of the Church in contrast to the Eastern or English ones.
I think, by now, I have made my position more clear. You don’t have to be Latin to be Catholic. But somebody can’t just call himself a pastor, get some friends together, recite the Creed, and call it a “Catholic Church,” at least as far as the Catholic Church (and the Eastern Churches) are concerned.
 
Yes, but we have a different definition of “universal” than protestants.

When the various protestant churches wanted to use the Creed, they had to re-define the meaning of the word “Catholic” to make it work.

They came up with the idea that the “universal” church was the collective body of Baptized people, using Paul’s analogy of the mystical Body of Christ. This idea is a protestant invention.

The Catholic Church does not accept this interpretation. For one thing, it just doesn’t work - Paul was using the analogy of a body to stress the importance of unity within the Church. Coming along 1500 years later and saying that it somehow explains the validity of disunity is far-fetched. It’s really the opposite of what Paul was saying.

The Catholic Church has always defined “universal” as meaning “for all people, in all places, at all times.” The Catholic Church uses the term Catholic exclusively to refer to Churches with Apostolic foundation who have not otherwise forfeited their legitimacy (as the Anglicans did). The Catholic Church does not consider protestants to be, in any way, Catholic.

(Many protestant communities also had to redefine the word “apostolic.” Suddenly it means “preach an Apostolic (ie, Biblical) doctrine.”)

Yes we are. Catholics don’t have a definition of “Catholic” which would admit protestants. Protestants have a definition of “Catholic” which would admit both. You can’t say it’s the same concept.

If, by “schism,” you mean the excommunication of Henry-8, then I would point out that the Anglican Church continued to be Catholic for several decades afterwards. They would still be Catholic today if they hadn’t screwed up their Orders (thanks, Cranmer!).

The Anglicans introduced a defect of form (and likely intent) into their Orders, and persisted in this error for more than a century. By the time they fixed it, they had no valid Bishops left (even though they had (and still have) valid Apostolic Succession).

I think, by now, I have made my position more clear. You don’t have to be Latin to be Catholic. But somebody can’t just call himself a pastor, get some friends together, recite the Creed, and call it a “Catholic Church,” at least as far as the Catholic Church (and the Eastern Churches) are concerned.
That was an informative summary (though Henry VIII left the Church just as much as he was excommunicated; as far as he was concerned his excommunication merely proved his point that the Pope was trying to meddle in English affairs).

The bit I enboldened (?!), however - could you explain what you mean? How is a contemporary Anglican claim to the Apostolic Succession valid if the ordination rubric was sufficiently messed up between 1552 and 1662 as to make the orders invalid (and which therefore continues today even if the issues with the original Anglican ordination have been cleared up and would now be seen as valid by themselves)?
 
How is a contemporary Anglican claim to the Apostolic Succession valid if the ordination rubric was sufficiently messed up between 1552 and 1662 as to make the orders invalid (and which therefore continues today even if the issues with the original Anglican ordination have been cleared up and would now be seen as valid by themselves)?
Apostolic Succession means that a guy was ordained by a guy who was ordained by a guy, etc, until you get back to an Apostle. While Apostolic Ordination is required for a valid Ordination, it does not insure one. It is only one of the requirements of “valid minister” which is only one of the five requirements of a valid Sacrament.

I guess someone could say that, without valid form, nobody was actually “ordained” so they can’t claim to be ordained by a guy who was ordained by a guy (etc), since they were never “ordained” in the first place! (and neither was the guy that “ordained” him.) And I can see that.

There’s no doubt that each Anglican Bishop can unroll the unbroken lineage of his predecessors back to an Apostle. I think of “Apostolic Succession” more like a family tree, even though some ancestors might have been illegitimate. It can still be traced back. To me, it’s a question of historic fact, not sacramental validity along the way.

I don’t think the Catholic Church has ever made any such distinction (it hasn’t come up). If someone wanted to say that the “family tree” of Bishops was broken by illegitimate predecessors then I would not care to argue the point. I could see it either way.
 
Apostolic Succession means that a guy was ordained by a guy who was ordained by a guy, etc, until you get back to an Apostle. While Apostolic Ordination is required for a valid Ordination, it does not insure one. It is only one of the requirements of “valid minister” which is only one of the five requirements of a valid Sacrament.

I guess someone could say that, without valid form, nobody was actually “ordained” so they can’t claim to be ordained by a guy who was ordained by a guy (etc), since they were never “ordained” in the first place! (and neither was the guy that “ordained” him.) And I can see that.

There’s no doubt that each Anglican Bishop can unroll the unbroken lineage of his predecessors back to an Apostle. I think of “Apostolic Succession” more like a family tree, even though some ancestors might have been illegitimate. It can still be traced back. To me, it’s a question of historic fact, not sacramental validity along the way.

I don’t think the Catholic Church has ever made any such distinction (it hasn’t come up). If someone wanted to say that the “family tree” of Bishops was broken by illegitimate predecessors then I would not care to argue the point. I could see it either way.
Ahhhhh! I see! Thank you 😃
 
Actually our discussion should be a help to you, because it should help you see that in fact “refuting the Articles” may not be as relevant as you initially thought.

Now there certainly are many Anglicans–ACNA conservatives in North America, and more mainstream Anglicans in England, Australia, and other places–who do take the Articles with great seriousness. But the first step in “refuting the Articles” is for you to understand that they do not have the same status in Anglicanism that, say, conciliar pronouncements have in Catholicism. Indeed, the priest who catechized me in Anglicanism taught me that the medieval, post-Schism Western Councils had more authority than the Articles (that’s an extreme position, to be sure–far more common would be the view that the Seven Councils of the “undivided” Church trump the Articles, and far more common yet that the first four Councils do). This is a point that needs to be established before we can give you the “help” you’re looking for.

It would help us help you if you explained just why you want to refute the Articles. As an intellectual exercise, or because you know people who hold to them?

Or in other words, why focus on the Articles in particular and not on classical Protestantism more broadly? The Articles are different from classical Protestantism as a whole only insofar as they are vaguer and less polemical, and thus easier to reconcile with Catholicism. So when you speak of “refuting the Articles,” do you mean “show how classical Protestantism, in this very basic form, is wrong insofar as it differs from Catholicism” or do you mean “show why the Tract 90 approach to the Articles is wrong and they really must be lumped together with Continental Protestant confessions as materially heretical”?

Edwin
Both. Thank you.
 
Both. Thank you.
Do you mean: “It would help us help you if you explained just why you want to refute the Articles. As an intellectual exercise, or because you know people who hold to them?”

or:

"do you mean “show how classical Protestantism, in this very basic form, is wrong insofar as it differs from Catholicism” or do you mean “show why the Tract 90 approach to the Articles is wrong and they really must be lumped together with Continental Protestant confessions as materially heretical”?

Either way, you must answer Edwin’s first question in order to give you an intelligible reply to the second.

Otherwise your question comes off as a class assignment you’re trying to get someone else to write for you.
 
Yes, but we have a different definition of “universal” than protestants.
Well, a lot of modern Protestants don’t think about it very deeply.

Of course Catholics and Protestants differ on the nature of the Catholic Church. But they are’t talking about two completely different, unrelated things. Hence I dislike the typographical convention catholic/Catholic and no longer use it if I can possibly avoid it.
When the various protestant churches wanted to use the Creed, they had to re-define the meaning of the word “Catholic” to make it work.
No, that’s not how it happened. They didn’t “want to use the Creed.” They never stopped using the Creed. And they came to a different view of what the Catholic Church was not “in order to use the Creed” but because they didn’t think the evidence supported the prevalent, deeply hierarchical definition.
They came up with the idea that the “universal” church was the collective body of Baptized people, using Paul’s analogy of the mystical Body of Christ. This idea is a protestant invention.
Nonsense. For starters, Protestants don’t simply say “all the baptized” but typically “baptized believers.” In terms of the visible Church, this of course means profession of faith. That is to say, we all agree that open apostates aren’t part of the Church. The idea that the Church is made up of all the baptized who profess the Faith is not a Protestant invention at all.
The Catholic Church does not accept this interpretation. For one thing, it just doesn’t work - Paul was using the analogy of a body to stress the importance of unity within the Church. Coming along 1500 years later and saying that it somehow explains the validity of disunity is far-fetched. It’s really the opposite of what Paul was saying.
Insofar as Protestants do that, absolutely.

But, of course, the Protestant definition of the Church doesn’t have to do that at all. On the contrary, if the Church is made up of all the baptized who profess faith in Christ, including people who are currently separated from each other, then seeking for the unity of all Christians is an urgent priority.

If, however, the Church remains essentially and necessarily one no matter how many baptized believers in Jesus may be found outside her boundaries, as Catholicism traditionally claims, then it’s not so clear why unity is so urgent. And that’s why pre-Vatican-II Catholicism was pretty cold to the ecumenical movement. The Church, in this paradigm, is already one. That people remain outside it is a tragedy for them but doesn’t harm the Church.

So it’s simply not true that the Protestant paradigm implies the validity of disunity. It can of course go along with an indifference to the importance of unity, via a spiritualization of the concept, or for that matter of the Church itself. And often it does. But if anything, it’s harder to explain why unity is such a big deal in the Catholic paradigm, since unity is simply a given that cannot be compromised by heresy and schism.
The Catholic Church has always defined “universal” as meaning “for all people, in all places, at all times.”
I’m not sure the Catholic definition of “Catholic” can be reduced to that.
The Catholic Church uses the term Catholic exclusively to refer to Churches with Apostolic foundation who have not otherwise forfeited their legitimacy (as the Anglicans did).
Can you give me an authoritative source for this definition? You are saying, then, that the Orthodox are Catholic in the Catholic view? I thought not. I thought that to be fully Catholic, in the “Roman Catholic” view, you have to be in union with Rome. What you’re describing as “Catholicity” was, I thought, the requirement for having a “valid particular church,” which then might not in fact be in union with the Catholic Church.

Perhaps I’m wrong, but I would like to see the evidence.
The Catholic Church does not consider protestants to be, in any way, Catholic.
I think you’re wrong about the “in any way,” just as I think you’re wrong that the Catholic Church considers valid particular churches in schism to be Catholic. See for example UR 1: “For men who believe in Christ and have been truly baptized are in communion with the Catholic Church even though this communion is imperfect.”

(Many protestant communities also had to redefine the word “apostolic.” Suddenly it means “preach an Apostolic (ie, Biblical) doctrine.”)

There’s nothing “sudden” about this meaning. What is new in the Protestant understanding is the idea that this can be separated from the need for apostolic succession in an institutional sense.
Yes we are. Catholics don’t have a definition of “Catholic” which would admit protestants. Protestants have a definition of “Catholic” which would admit both. You can’t say it’s the same concept.
//QUOTE]
We may be arguing semantics. I’m not saying they have the same view of what “Catholic” means, of course. I’m saying that the two meanings are not unrelated–they are two rival definitions of the same basic theological concept.
 
No, that’s not how it happened. They didn’t “want to use the Creed.” They never stopped using the Creed.
OK, now you’re nitpicking. OK, they “wanted to continue to use the Creed.” But it has one really pesky word.
And they came to a different view of what the Catholic Church
Isn’t that just another way to say “redefine?”
they didn’t think the evidence supported the prevalent, deeply hierarchical definition.
Oh c’mon! The Catholic Church wrote the Creed. The Catholic Church alone has the authority to say what it really means?

Protestants come along some 1200 years AFTER the Catholic Church wrote the Creed to tell us what it “really” means.
Protestants don’t simply say “all the baptized” but typically “baptized believers.” In terms of the visible Church, this of course means profession of faith. That is to say, we all agree that open apostates aren’t part of the Church. The idea that the Church is made up of all the baptized who profess the Faith is not a Protestant invention at all.
OK, then what you said is a protestant invention. Maybe I said it wrong, but what you said is no different.

This is, by the way, a very different idea than what the Church has to be called “Catholic.” A “Catholic” is:
  • Anyone who has received Baptism in the Catholic Church, or
  • Anyone who has been formally received into the Catholic Church, or
  • Anyone who has received valid Christian Baptism and identifies himself as a Catholic.
Protestants are none of these.
If, however, the Church remains essentially and necessarily one no matter how many baptized believers in Jesus may be found outside her boundaries, as Catholicism traditionally claims, then it’s not so clear why unity is so urgent.
Unity is not just urgent, it is absolutely necessary. It’s that other pesky note of the Creed, “One.”

Our Lord prayed for unity within the Church:
I pray also for those who will believe in me through their message, that all of them may be one [John 17:20]
Catholics believe that Our Lord’s prayer was answered.

Paul stressed the importance of unity in his parables about the “body.”
The Catholic Church uses the term Catholic exclusively to refer to Churches with Apostolic foundation who have not otherwise forfeited their legitimacy
Can you give me an authoritative source for this definition?

I did not say it was a definition. I said the Church never uses the term “Catholic” otherwise. And it doesn’t.

For example, in Dominus Iesus, the Vatican-2 teaching that defined the Catholic nature of Churches not in communion with Rome, the Council reserves even the word “Church” to recognized Catholic Churches, and uses the term “ecclesial community” for protestants.

But I can give you an authoratative source for the Catholic understanding of the Mystical Body of Christ. Pope Pius-7 wrote a whole encyclical on it: MYSTICI CORPORIS CHRISTI, which includes (#14) this teaching:
Hence they err in a matter of divine truth, who imagine the Church to be invisible, intangible, a something merely “pneumatological” as they say, by which many Christian communities, though they differ from each other in their profession of faith, are untied by an invisible bond.
You are saying, then, that the Orthodox are Catholic in the Catholic view?
Absolutely. They are of Apostolic origin and have valid Orders and seven valid Sacraments. If I visited an Orthodox parish, I would genuflect before their Tabernacle (but I wouldn’t do that in an Episcopal parish).

That’s why I sometimes switch to saying the “Latin Church” instead of the Catholic Church. Rome admits several communities as Catholic who are not in unity with Her. This is schism (a dispute over leadership), not heresy (a dispute over doctrine).
I thought not. I thought that to be fully Catholic, in the “Roman Catholic” view, you have to be in union with Rome. What you’re describing as “Catholicity” was, I thought, the requirement for having a “valid particular church,” which then might not in fact be in union with the Catholic Church.
I hope I have made my position clear. There are several Catholic Churches recognized by Rome, including the Orthodox, the PNCC, and the Old Catholics.

The Anglican Church (after Henry’s excommunication) was recognized as Catholic, until Cranmer came along and screwed up Anglican Orders.
I think you’re wrong about the “in any way,” just as I think you’re wrong that the Catholic Church considers valid particular churches in schism to be Catholic.
No, I think I got that one right:
Therefore, there exists a single Church of Christ, which subsists in the Catholic Church, governed by the Successor of Peter and by the Bishops in communion with him. The Churches which, while not existing in perfect communion with the Catholic Church, remain united to her by means of the closest bonds, that is, by apostolic succession and a valid Eucharist, are true particular Churches. DOMINUS IESUS, #17]
There’s nothing “sudden” about this meaning. What is new in the Protestant understanding is the idea that this can be separated from the need for apostolic succession in an institutional sense.
Ah, so they took a word that had been used by Catholics writing the Creed, and had the same understanding for 1200 years, and suddenly THEY came to a new understanding?
 
Do you mean: “It would help us help you if you explained just why you want to refute the Articles. As an intellectual exercise, or because you know people who hold to them?”

or:

"do you mean “show how classical Protestantism, in this very basic form, is wrong insofar as it differs from Catholicism” or do you mean “show why the Tract 90 approach to the Articles is wrong and they really must be lumped together with Continental Protestant confessions as materially heretical”?

Either way, you must answer Edwin’s first question in order to give you an intelligible reply to the second.

Otherwise your question comes off as a class assignment you’re trying to get someone else to write for you.
The last one for the first and both for the second.
 
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