Regarding Rape

  • Thread starter Thread starter TLM08
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Both rape and masturbation (which is what losing his seed on the ground amounts to) are disordered behaviour, and mortal sins. It can certainly be argued that rape isn’t a kind of sex; rather, it’s a kind of violence, which stands to reason because sex is a sharing of physical bonding, which rape obviously is not.

He shouldn’t do either one, and he isn’t going to get a medal of honour from God for not risking getting his victim pregnant. He’s going straight to Hell no matter what he does.

Victims certainly have the right to resist rape; after all, it has nothing to do with the marital bond. If she can kill him, she is justified, on the grounds of self-defense.
Unless he goes to confession and is contrite in which case he would not be damned.

He would have to confess both sins. But both ends to the conclusion would have been sinful sense the act was conceived in sin in and of itself

If a rapist were to consider that during the course of rape the righteous action would be to immediately stop the rape at the soonest point, beg mercy, and go to confession. His knowledge of the bible would further cement his guilt and greatly increase his sorrow/penance upon contrition.
 
That is simply a lie. Show us where the Church teaches that.
I meant it as an indirect type of thing. It’s the morality of never saying “no” to a life. I don’t condone that, but if you think about it clearly enough, you can come to conclusions like that.

Ironically Yours. ❤️
 
I meant it as an indirect type of thing. It’s the morality of never saying “no” to a life. I don’t condone that, but if you think about it clearly enough, you can come to conclusions like that.

Ironically Yours. ❤️
You should think before you make comments like that. How do you think any forum members who are victims of rape would feel about you telling them they committed a sin by trying to resist!
 
I have zero patience for questions like this. I’ll just shut up and let nicer people respond.
The Church views the intentional wasting of semen (Onanism) as a mortal sin. The question is not intended to be offensive, but thought provoking.

Consider the fact that the church even forbids this practice when another pregnancy would place the wife’s life in danger.

Also, people need to stop buying into this stupid notion that rape is purely about violence and domination and has nothing to do with sex.

The primary reason rape occurs is the out of control sex drive of the perpetrator. The difference is that the rapist is by nature a jerk who will resort to violence to get sex and has absolutely no regard for his victim.
 
The Church views the intentional wasting of semen (Onanism) as a mortal sin. The question is not intended to be offensive, but thought provoking.

Consider the fact that the church even forbids this practice when another pregnancy would place the wife’s life in danger.

Also, people need to stop buying into this stupid notion that rape is purely about violence and domination and has nothing to do with sex.

The primary reason rape occurs is the out of control sex drive of the perpetrator. The difference is that the rapist is by nature a jerk who will resort to violence to get sex and has absolutely no regard for his victim.
Well, you really need a moral theologian to get a proper answer, but imo I cannot see how the sin of contraception would apply to an act of an unjust aggressor.

The Church allows woman who have been raped to take medication to suppress ovulation if no conception has occurred. That is not “contraception”. That is repelling and unjust aggressor.

The man acting in your case is not engaged in a conjugal act. There is no unitive and procreative aspect to the action. It is illicit.
 
The Church views the intentional wasting of semen (Onanism) as a mortal sin. The question is not intended to be offensive, but thought provoking.

Consider the fact that the church even forbids this practice when another pregnancy would place the wife’s life in danger.

Also, people need to stop buying into this stupid notion that rape is purely about violence and domination and has nothing to do with sex.

The primary reason rape occurs is the out of control sex drive of the perpetrator. The difference is that the rapist is by nature a jerk who will resort to violence to get sex and has absolutely no regard for his victim.
Here is where problems occur in the difference between Biblical/Christian morality and the human moral sense - the notion that certain moral instincts about interacting effectively with fellows have developed throughout the millennia over which human beings have spent living in social groups.

The Bible, in particular the Old Testament, is rather sketchy on the subject of rape, as has been demonstrated in previous posts to this thread. As far as I can recall, the New Testament does not mention rape in any particular way (though feel free to correct me here). Thus, Biblical morality falls short on this issue.

Christian morality, if taken from an historical viewpoint, has had little time for the issue of rape. Historically, once a woman was married, her duty was to submit to her husband, in whatever form that took - otherwise she risked social ostracism at best, and violence and possibly even death at worst. Marital rape has only been recognised as a possibility, let alone a crime, within the last 100 years.

We are therefore left with the intuitive, evolving moral sense that humans, in general, possess - if it has not been subjugated to indoctrination in one form or another. Most thinking people would agree that forcing a person into sexual intimacy against their will is wrong. It is a violation of personal autonomy, a notion which is almost universally accepted amongst humanists (if you’re looking for any group other than Christians/theists that claim an interest in defining morality). In this instance - taking into account the total harm caused to the victim - there would perhaps be some ethical mitigation in the rapist’s voluntary withdrawal before pregnancy could occur. However, given the uncertainty involved, that mitigation would be absolutely minimal (if present at all), given the nature of the act of rape, in and of itself.

To suppose that rape is about sex - or a disordered sex drive - is also a misrepresentation of the issue, I believe. To force intimacy upon a person without their consent is a gross violation of their free will, and I think that is the key to understanding rape as a crime, and a sin, if you will have it so. This crime is certainly compounded by attitudes towards relations between men and women; if you are brought up to believe, or if you somehow come to believe, that it is a man’s right to have sexual relations with a woman, then the woman’s free will falls by the wayside - the man’s power and the man’s will become paramount in such an interaction. (Please note that I am here only dealing with heterosexual rape - homosexual rape, while still a gross violation of free will and free association, is a qualitatively different issue, due to the attitudes of mind involved).

Thus, while I am suspicious of the intentions of the original poster, I still think this is a moral issue worth discussing.
 
The Church views the intentional wasting of semen (Onanism) as a mortal sin. The question is not intended to be offensive, but thought provoking.
You’re already dead wrong in the first sentence. Stop getting your theology from Monty Python and do some homework.

The sin of Onan is not the ‘wasting’ of sperm. It is the sin of misusing human sexuality as a recreational activity only by grabbing for the pleasure while sterilizing the fertility function God designed.

When people intentionally disconnect sex from fertility, THAT is the sin, not ‘wasting the sperm.’

As already noted above, the rapist is in an entirely other category. It is irrelevant where his sperm goes since his actions are incompatible with EITHER the unitive/procreative nature God intended for sex. (And by the way, this is exactly why the Church has not forbidden rape victims from receiving the pill after the fact if there is good reason to be sure she hasn’t already ovulated. She is under NO obligation to avoid ‘wasting’ his sperm and can use chemical means to AVOID conception, but not kill a child AFTER conception.)
 
You’re already dead wrong in the first sentence. Stop getting your theology from Monty Python and do some homework.
Great, 😃 now I have “that” song stuck in my head! 😛

The rest of your post is right on point, Manualman! 👍
 
You should think before you make comments like that. How do you think any forum members who are victims of rape would feel about you telling them they committed a sin by trying to resist!
Yeah, I know. But, thankfully, they know better than to submit to such a traumatizing act (I hope).

Besides, I don’t honestly believe that. :rolleyes:

Ironically Yours, Blade and Blood
 
Well, you really need a moral theologian to get a proper answer, but imo I cannot see how the sin of contraception would apply to an act of an unjust aggressor.

The Church allows woman who have been raped to take medication to suppress ovulation if no conception has occurred. That is not “contraception”. That is repelling and unjust aggressor.

The man acting in your case is not engaged in a conjugal act. There is no unitive and procreative aspect to the action. It is illicit.
Is that really allowed?
 
Wow… That is exactly what Natural Family Planning does!

😉
No, it doesn’t. The act itself is open to life, even when one or both parties are either temporarily or permanently infertile, due to natural circumstances.

And, as in the case of Elizabeth and Zachary, and of Abraham and Sarah, God can still act supernaturally to create new life, even where there is natural infertility. 🙂
 
Yes, morning-after type pills are okay after rape, but only under very specific conditions: The woman must be tested to know exactly where she is in her cycle, or if she charts, I suppose she already knows. If she has ovulated, nothing can be done–if she ovulated a while ago, she can’t conceive anyway. If she just ovulated yesterday and there is a chance that sperm could meet egg, the pill cannot be used, because it could cause abortion. If she has not yet ovulated, the pill hormones can prevent/delay ovulation until after the sperm have died, so that conception would not occur.

As to the rapist scenario–someone mentioned marital rape. I can’t speak with any theological expertise, but on a personal level, contracepted marital rape can be worse, because it removes the natural consequence of sex for the man (ie he doesn’t have to deal with the responsibility of fathering) and denies the woman a chance to at least get a baby out of the situation. Sorry if that sounds crude; I can’t think of a better way to word it.
 
Yes, morning-after type pills are okay after rape, but only under very specific conditions: The woman must be tested to know exactly where she is in her cycle, or if she charts, I suppose she already knows. If she has ovulated, nothing can be done–if she ovulated a while ago, she can’t conceive anyway. If she just ovulated yesterday and there is a chance that sperm could meet egg, the pill cannot be used, because it could cause abortion. If she has not yet ovulated, the pill hormones can prevent/delay ovulation until after the sperm have died, so that conception would not occur.

As to the rapist scenario–someone mentioned marital rape. I can’t speak with any theological expertise, but on a personal level, contracepted marital rape can be worse, because it removes the natural consequence of sex for the man (ie he doesn’t have to deal with the responsibility of fathering) and denies the woman a chance to at least get a baby out of the situation. Sorry if that sounds crude; I can’t think of a better way to word it.
I have a question and that is regarding rape why do we not kill the woman too?
 
:confused:

In addition to whom? Nobody here is advocating abortion.
Oh yes someone is stating the morning after pill is ok.

Ru486 is the morning after pill and is not taken the morning after and kills the baby in the womb.

If one suggest that then they are condemning an innocent. That baby committed no crime same as the woman who was raped so it stands to reason that if your for the morning after than in the same realm of thought why not kill the mother too for bothwere innocent.
 
Oh yes someone is stating the morning after pill is ok.

Ru486 is the morning after pill and is not taken the morning after and kills the baby in the womb.

If one suggest that then they are condemning an innocent. That baby committed no crime same as the woman who was raped so it stands to reason that if your for the morning after than in the same realm of thought why not kill the mother too for bothwere innocent.
I think the poster was using terms in a loose way. No one is condoning chemical abortion. What some are saying is that it is licit to use drugs to expel the sperm which as no righ to be in the woman.

The problem is she needs to be tested to be sure no conception has happend and that is another moral issue for a new thread as it is complicated.
 
Yes, morning-after type pills are okay after rape, but only under very specific conditions: The woman must be tested to know exactly where she is in her cycle, or if she charts, I suppose she already knows. If she has ovulated, nothing can be done–if she ovulated a while ago, she can’t conceive anyway. If she just ovulated yesterday and there is a chance that sperm could meet egg, the pill cannot be used, because it could cause abortion. If she has not yet ovulated, the pill hormones can prevent/delay ovulation until after the sperm have died, so that conception would not occur.

As to the rapist scenario–someone mentioned marital rape. I can’t speak with any theological expertise, but on a personal level, contracepted marital rape can be worse, because it removes the natural consequence of sex for the man (ie he doesn’t have to deal with the responsibility of fathering) and denies the woman a chance to at least get a baby out of the situation. Sorry if that sounds crude; I can’t think of a better way to word it.
The French abortion pill RU-486, on the market since 2000, has become an increasingly common alternative, making abortion less clinical and more private. At a time when the overall number of abortions has been steadily declining, RU-486-induced abortions have been rising by 22 percent a year and now account for 14 percent of the total – and more than one in five early abortions performed by the ninth week of pregnancy.
 
Oh yes someone is stating the morning after pill is ok.

Ru486 is the morning after pill and is not taken the morning after and kills the baby in the womb.

If one suggest that then they are condemning an innocent. That baby committed no crime same as the woman who was raped so it stands to reason that if your for the morning after than in the same realm of thought why not kill the mother too for bothwere innocent.
I think the poster was using terms in a loose way. No one is condoning chemical abortion. What some are saying is that it is licit to use drugs to expel the sperm which as no right to be in the woman. Drugs to suppress ovulation seem licit if no conception has happend. There are many medical factors to be considered in each case.

The problem is she needs to be tested to be sure no conception has happend and that is another moral issue for a new thread as it is complicated.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top