? Regarding the new English translation 'Consubstantial'

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Our local Catholic newspaper contained an article about the new English translation of the Mass prayers. They included the Nicene Creed. I was discussing this translation with a friend and he remarked on the awkwardness of the phrase ‘consubstantial with the Father’ rather than the current ‘of One Being with the Father’. He opined that hardly anyone understands ‘consubstantial’ and therefore it is not clear what it is that we are professing.

Help!

What does consubstantial mean in the theological sense as it is used here? How does this differ from One Being?
 
Serious question - do people really understand what “one in being with the Father” means? I would maintain that without some study on the subject (one sermon would do), that phrase has no more inherent meaning to a listener than “consubstantial with the Father”. Either wording requires explanation, and the theologians tell us that “consubstantial” is more accurate.
 
One in being is really a terrible translation. It’s awfully close to what the Eastern Church accused the West of; i.e. making the Father and the Son insufficiently distinct as in Sabellian Modalism. Consubstantial fitly translates homoousios, one in being does not.
 
‘Consubstantial’ is an English rendering of ‘consubstantialis’ which is a Latin rendering of ‘homoousios’.

This is a technical term and was used very deliberately at the Council of Nicea in 325. The principal heresy which Nicea (with the help of St. Athanasius) defended the faith against was that of Arianism.

Arians said that Christ was “of similiar substance” to the Father (in Greek, ‘homoiousios’, one iota different). Here, ousia, in Latin substantia, is a philosophical term meaning the thing which “under-lies” something to make it what it is. The Church frequently uses ‘nature’ or ‘essence’ synonymously with ‘substance.’

By defining that Christ is “consubstantial with the Father,” the Church clearly upheld Christ’s divinity against the Arians and others who taught that the Son is subordinate to the Father in some way.

‘Consubstantial’ is a technical word, one which the Church thought carefully about for centuries and selected as the word to use in the Nicene Creed to describe the relationship of the Son to the Father concerning substance.
 
Why is it so often assumed that nobody would have the sense to open a dictionary or just go to dictionary.com if they don’t know the meaning of a word?? If an adult can’t be bothered to learn or understand ONE word they have problems…
 
‘Consubstantial’ is an English rendering of ‘consubstantialis’ which is a Latin rendering of ‘homoousios’.

This is a technical term and was used very deliberately at the Council of Nicea in 325. The principal heresy which Nicea (with the help of St. Athanasius) defended the faith against was that of Arianism.

Arians said that Christ was “of similiar substance” to the Father (in Greek, ‘homoiousios’, one iota different). Here, ousia, in Latin substantia, is a philosophical term meaning the thing which “under-lies” something to make it what it is. The Church frequently uses ‘nature’ or ‘essence’ synonymously with ‘substance.’

By defining that Christ is “consubstantial with the Father,” the Church clearly upheld Christ’s divinity against the Arians and others who taught that the Son is subordinate to the Father in some way.

‘Consubstantial’ is a technical word, one which the Church thought carefully about for centuries and selected as the word to use in the Nicene Creed to describe the relationship of the Son to the Father concerning substance.
Thank you. This is what I am looking for.

As you say, it is a technical word, carefully selected, so it behooves us to understand carefully what they mean by it. This term has not been used since prior to Vatican II so it is unfamiliar to many. Considering the woeful state of Catholic catechesis these days, I doubt even the kids have heard it in their RE classes.

Several people I know absolutely baulk at a multi-syllabic word and even have trouble reading it, much less understanding it. They pass over it and go to the next word relieved that they don’t have to think so hard. The two short words, One Being, are easier for them to understand even if they are not a precise translation. (These people are my friends and if they don’t have intellectual capacity, it is no impediment to them being good friends to me, nor to being good Catholics for that matter.) They just need someone to explain it to them.

Seeing as how the Church has catered to the unlettered masses for centuries, how has it dealt with getting the meaning of this term across?

The online dictionary was woefully inadequate and did not contain any of the history of the selection of this particular word nor any explanation of the heresy that required that the doctrine be proclaimed infallibly.

My friend, for whom I am asking, is confined to a nursing home since he is dying of adrenal cancer and is unable, at this time, to access a dictionary, either online or hardcopy. In his case, it is a physical impediment. With others, there is an intellectual impediment. Even if they look it up in a dictionary, they will probably be no wiser.

If my friend ‘has problems’ understanding a technical term or using a dictionary even, should I not try to help him to understand rather than just dismissing him as stupid or lazy? We need to build each other up, not make derogatory comments and make them feel bad.

Why should I not use the resources of all the learned theologians, especially people familiar with both Greek and Latin, here on this site to try to get an in-depth understanding of a technical term defining a doctrine? Isn’t this what this site is all about - promoting a true understanding of the teachings of the Church?
 
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