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twf
Guest
We know that the Catechism teaches that modesty is, at least to a degree, determind by the time and place. What is modest in North America may be very immodest in Saudi Arabia - let alone a different time period. My question is what or who gaugues these relative standards of modesty? It seems to me it is a subjective judgment of prudence - not an objective standard. Yet when I read threads here on modesty the standards are often painted objectively. For example, on many threads I have seen it stated that women should wear skirts that at least go to the knee. This comes across as almost an objective truth, and often in the same post you will see references regarding imitating Our Lady’s modesty. Now of course if a woman were a skirt that showed the needs or the calves in first century Israel, she would likely be stoned to death - such would not be deemed modest at all. Likewise even today in some Muslim countries. Not covering her hear in public or showing even her lower arms would have been a grave immodest display in Our Lady’s time as well. So who has determined this to be an appropriate standard? Does it vary somewhat between the US and Canada? Between the US and Spain? etc