B
bobzills
Guest
People on this forum have declared that contraception is intrinsically wrong. If so, then why do the American bishops approve its use relative to a certain situation. Does that not indicate that whether contraception is right or wrong is relative to the situation at hand and it is not intrinsically wrong as people here have stated? I don;t see how contraception can be intrinsically wrong and at the same time approved in a certain case unless we are dealing with relativity in the modern world here?Where is this declaration of the American bishops? Can I trouble you for a link?
usccb.org/prolife/issues/abortion/ecfact.shtml
“A woman who has been raped should be able to defend herself from a potential conception and receive treatments to suppress ovulation and incapacitate sperm.”
usccb.org/prolife/issues/abortion/ecfact.shtml
“Hospitals can offer rape victims treatments that are truly contraceptive and address their other needs with compassion and respect.”
origin.foxnews.com/story/0,2933,298310,00.html
“CATHOLIC BISHOPS AGREE TO LET HOSPITALS GIVE EMERGENCY CONTRACEPTION TO RAPE VICTIMS”
findarticles.com/p/articles/mi_qn4188/is_20070928/ai_n21025189/
“Catholic bishops allow contraception after rape”