That was a unique period. Aristobulos was a Herod the Great appointee, and Herod did it only grudging, removing his Ananelus appointee, who was a friend, I believe. Aristobulos was the brother of his wife, Mariamne, and Mariamne and Mariamne’s mother forced Herod to do it.
That this was a unique period is a gratuitous assertion. This is a pattern with you, my friend. If you face some difficulty you pretty often make a groundless and gratuitous assertion to try to cover it.
But Aristobulos proved to be so popular that Herod had him murdered at his Jericho palace. So hardly an argument that High Priests were routinely re-appointed.
I didn’t ever say they were routinely re-appointed. You said that they never were and I proved otherwise. But again, there is no need for Ananias to be re-appointed, because Josephus never says that he was un-appointed (until he is replaced by Ismael, c. A.D. 59).
Ananus was the real Temple power, and anyone potentially corrupt enough to be taken to Rome for examination, like Ananias, Ananus would not put back in power.
Another groundless and gratuitous assertion. I have said a couple of times here that Ananias was acquitted in Rome. He returned having been found innocent and his adversary, Cumanus, was banished. There was no reason to remove him from the high priesthood.
I think Hagan’s speculation has substance, and should not be discounted.
Hagan’s speculation (I’m glad you admit that’s what it is) is fraught with difficulties and has no significant support that I can find in the scholarly literature. And once again, just who is this guy? Pretty clearly an amateur historian, which is okay I guess, but when he makes such obvious goofs then it doesn’t inspire much confidence.
Let me throw something out at you, Dave.
Clearly, Josephus was meticulous about documenting his High Priests. They were touched by God, and he usually threw in the names of their fathers, too. But clearly he broke this tradition in the Ananias-Jonathan-Ismael period in the A.D. 50’s.
Why?
I have answered this several times. The most reasonable explanation for why he did not put in the father of Jonathan in Book 20 is that he had already introduced Jonathan (including his father’s name) in Book 19. So the reader already knows who he’s talking about. But once again, he does not say that Jonathan was appointed high priest in place of Ananias.
And what’s more, Steve, you objected earlier that:
In Josephus, note that he says “…Jonathan, the High Priest…”.
Now, it is customary for former US Presidents to still be called President. BUT…Jimmy Carter is referred to as “President Carter”, and NOT “Jimmy Carter the President” because he is not the current President.
Calling Simon Ananus “High Priest Ananus” is a lot different than saying “Ananus, the High Priest.” He is NOT the High Priest, but as an honor has assimilated the office appellation in his own name “High Priest Ananus”.
Notice that in
War of the Jews Josephus explicitly calls Ananias “Ananias the high priest” several times. But this was just before the outbreak of the war (A.D. 66) and hence long after Ananias was actually in that office:
At the same time Eleazar, the son of Ananias the high priest, a very bold youth, who was at that time governor of the temple, persuaded those that officiated in the Divine service to receive no gift or sacrifice for any foreigner. (2.17.2)
The others then set fire to the house of Ananias the high priest, and to the palaces of Agrippa and Bernice; (2.17.6)
And when they had thus burnt down the nerves of the city, they fell upon their enemies; at which time some of the men of power, and of the high priests, went into the vaults under ground, and concealed themselves, while others fled with the king’s soldiers to the upper palace, and shut the gates immediately; among whom were Ananias the high priest, and the ambassadors that had been sent to Agrippa. (2.17.6)
So that fact that Josephus speaks of “Jonathan the high priest” in between Ananias and Ismael does nothing to establish that he was currently in the office. Rather, as F. F. Bruce rightly says, he was the ex-high priest and the entire manufactured “difficulty” goes away.
He lived through it and knew all the priests personally. It should be detailed and spot-on
It is. That’s why it’s really a stretch to say that this Jonathan was appointed (re-appointed) high priest in place of Ananias. Josephus simply does not say that. Your whole case is an argument from silence and then runs into all sorts of additional difficulties, not the least of which is that Jonathan was killed in A.D. 56 and Ismael was not appointed high priest until A.D. 59-60.
Is it possible that the early Church recognized the incompatibility of Luke with Josephus, and so intentionally obfuscated that part of Josephus so Luke would not be contradicted? In other words, a seminal copy of Josephus had been tampered with. It is accepted that the TF in Josephus was embellished by Christians- why not other parts of Antiquities?
Wait a minute…Are you now admitting that the fact that Josephus does not say that Jonathan was appointed high priest in place of Ananias really does torpedo your case, so now you’re going to try to claim that the text has been purposely tampered with? And you accuse me of twisting and turning?
