T
travelslightly
Guest
In CCC paragraph 1665, it states the someone who has divorced and remarried cannot receive communion, but they are not separated from the Church and are expected to participate in Christian life. However, I was told that the 1917 Canon Law called for such a person to be excommunicated.
Does anyone know why the Canon Law changed in 1983 to remove this excommunication? Also, how can this be reconciled with 1Cor5 where Paul calls for the removal of a person in such an adulterous relationship?
Does anyone know why the Canon Law changed in 1983 to remove this excommunication? Also, how can this be reconciled with 1Cor5 where Paul calls for the removal of a person in such an adulterous relationship?