Remarriage for adultery

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Eric2718

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I know the Church’s teaching on divorce but scripture seems to allow it for adultery. I’ve read the counter that the greek word means “fornication” and not adultery. The tract on this topic here at CA gives the following quote from Augustine. Notice how he uses “fornication” to mean adultery for if it was really fornication his wife did then that meant she was not married to him when she had sex with another. Yet Augustine uses “fornication” but later says adultery happened.

I don’t understand.

Augustine

“Neither can it rightly be held that a husband who dismisses his wife because of fornication and marries another does not commit adultery. For there is also adultery on the part of those who, after the repudiation of their former wives because of fornication, marry others. This adultery, nevertheless, is certainly less serious than that of men who dismiss their wives for reasons other than fornication and take other wives. Therefore, when we say: ‘Whoever marries a woman dismissed by her husband for reason other than fornication commits adultery,’ undoubtedly we speak the truth. But we do not thereby acquit of this crime the man who marries a woman who was dismissed because of fornication. We do not doubt in the least that both are adulterers. We do indeed pronounce him an adulterer who dismissed his wife for cause other than fornication and marries another, nor do we thereby defend from the taint of this sin the man who dismissed his wife because of fornication and marries another. We recognize that both are adulterers, though the sin of one is more grave than that of the other. No one is so unreasonable to say that a man who marries a woman whose husband has dismissed her because of fornication is not an adulterer, while maintaining that a man who marries a woman dismissed without the ground of fornication is an adulterer. Both of these men are guilty of adultery” (Adulterous Marriages 1:9:9 [A.D. 419]).
 
From what I understand:

Adultery is fornication that takes place while someone is considered married. Fornication is simply defined as sexual activity done outside of marriage, which would include sex with someone that is not your spouse.

However, with that said, even if adultery has been committed, if the couple still desires to be together, and has always wanted it to be so, then they are still seen to have a marriage (it isn’t nullified) If divorce happens anyway (because of hurt feelings or whatever) while there is still a valid marriage, if one remarries and has relations with his/her new “wife/husband”, it is adultery, because they are still married to someone else.

Though, adultery is typically an indication that the one spouse does not wish to be married and probably didn’t have the idea in mind of being married to their significant other for the rest of their life, which would indicate that there never was a marriage.
 
From the official Catechism of the Catholic Church:

IV. OFFENSES AGAINST THE DIGNITY OF MARRIAGE

Adultery

2380 Adultery refers to marital infidelity. When two partners, of whom at least one is married to another party, have sexual relations - even transient ones - they commit adultery. Christ condemns even adultery of mere desire.171 The sixth commandment and the New Testament forbid adultery absolutely.172 The prophets denounce the gravity of adultery; they see it as an image of the sin of idolatry.173

Biblical references
171 Cf. Mt 5:27-28.
172 Cf. Mt 5:32; 19:6; Mk 10:11; 1 Cor 6:9-10.
173 Cf. Hos 2:7; Jer 5:7; 13:27.

2353 Fornication is carnal union between an unmarried man and an unmarried woman. It is gravely contrary to the dignity of persons and of human sexuality which is naturally ordered to the good of spouses and the generation and education of children. Moreover, it is a grave scandal when there is corruption of the young.

(You don’t mention whether your bible is a good Catholic translation.)

May God bless you
 
I know the Church’s teaching on divorce but scripture seems to allow it for adultery. I’ve read the counter that the greek word means “fornication” and not adultery. The tract on this topic here at CA gives the following quote from Augustine. Notice how he uses “fornication” to mean adultery for if it was really fornication his wife did then that meant she was not married to him when she had sex with another. Yet Augustine uses “fornication” but later says adultery happened.

I don’t understand.
Word meanings evolve. For instance, “Hades” was just the name of the “abode of the dead” - we might can ll it afterlife. But after centuries, it was adopted into English as a synonym for “hell.”

flammable/inflammable <–used to be opposites

comprise did NOT mean compose

And so on…
 
Fornication in the wide sense is any unlawful sexual intercourse. In the strict sense it is what the catechism says.
 
From the official Catechism of the Catholic Church:

…
You don’t mention whether your bible is a good Catholic translation.)
I read Mt 19:9 out of the RSV Catholic Edition. It used the word “fornication” as an exception to staying married. I’ve heard it argued that of course that’s allowed because fornication only happens when neither partner is married thus no real marriage to begin with. I gave Augustine’s quote as an example (I’m sure there are others) of early church fathers that did not see the word “fornication” the way the Catechism defines it today.
 
Modern Catholic Dictionary:

ADULTERY. Sexual intercourse of a married person and another who is not the wife or husband. Forbidden by the sixth commandment of the Decalogue, it was extended in meaning by Christ, who forbade divorce with the right to remarry during the lifetime of one’s legitimate spouse. (Etym. Latin adulterium, adultery, carnal or spiritual.)

FORNICATION. An act of sexual intercourse between a man and a woman who are not validly married, although they are free to marry. It is by its nature gravely sinful. (Etym. Latin fornicatio, fornication; from fornix, a vault, arch, brothel.)
 
When Scripture seems to have given an exception to the indissolubility of marriage, the word in that exception was neither that for fornication OR adultery. The greek word (I’m not a greek scholar, just repeating what I learned) is “porneia”. This word has a variety of meanings, but the catholic interpretation in this case based on context is that the exception is NOT given for bad behavior, but for a marriage that is by its very nature corrupt. Remember the culture of the day in which Jesus taught. There were people that were married to their cousins, perhaps even sisters! These, by their very nature, were ‘perverse’ marriages. Porneia is the same root word as pornography. It refers to something sexually debased by its very nature.

Think about it logically for a second. Jesus clearly teaches that marriage is indissoluble. Once two are genuinely, sacramentally wed, nothing can break that supernatural bond. Is it really that God is so shortsighted that he’d say that no man could tear apart what God has joined if all that was necessary to break that bond was a bit 'o cheating?

I know that’s hard to hear, especially for the innocent victim of a cheating spouse. I wish there WAS a way to turn back the clock and prevent you from suffering that pain. But divorce and remarriage isn’t a time machine, it doesn’t undo the marriage and make a new one. If you genuinely were married in God’s eyes (and btw there’s more to that than a white dress, a priest and an “I do”), no act of man can ever undo that.
 
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