I have a question. What if both of the potential spouses are aware of the woman’s reason to wanting to get married? Would it still make the marrige invalid?
That is a very interesting question.
The Church requires these things of those seeking marriage (from the CCC in Italics below):
1625* The parties to a marriage covenant are a baptized man and woman, free to contract marriage, who freely express their consent; “to be free” means: *
*- not being under constraint; *
*- not impeded by any natural or ecclesiastical law. *
1626* The Church holds the exchange of consent between the spouses to be the indispensable element that "makes the marriage."127 If consent is lacking there is no marriage. *
1627 The consent consists in a “human act by which the partners mutually give themselves to each other”: “I take you to be my wife” - "I take you to be my husband."128 This consent that binds the spouses to each other finds its fulfillment in the two "becoming one flesh."129 *
1628 The consent must be an act of the will of each of the contracting parties, free of coercion or grave external fear.130 No human power can substitute for this consent.131 If this freedom is lacking the marriage is invalid.*
*************** end of CCC citation **************
As long as the parties involved meet the conditions set out above, a marriage can be valid. If they are free to marry, have full consent, knowledge of the permanance of marriage, consumate the marriage and are open to life in that consumation, a marriage of “convenience” can be vaild.
Contrary to popular belief, romantic love is not required for a valid marriage to be contracted.