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1kathyk
Guest
When a person remarries after being married in the church and divorced in civil court, why is it still a sin?
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chevalier
Guest
Because a sacramental marriage is indissoluble, means there’s no divorce. If there’s no divorce, the first marriage still binds and there can be no other marriage because marriage is with only one person.
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1kathyk
Guest
Annulment can dissolve a chuch marriage. Has the sin still been committed prior to the annulment?
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puzzleannie
Guest
no — annulment dissolves nothing.Annulment can dissolve a chuch marriage. Has the sin still been committed prior to the annulment?
No power on earth can dissolve a valid marriage. Also there is no such thing, actually as annulment. A person who has previously been married who feels that conditions which existed at the time of the marriage render the contract invalid may petition the canon law tribunal of the diocese, who will investigate the facts pertaining at the time of the marriage, and render a judgement. If they find that indeed there were impediments in natural law, in canon law, or in ability to consent, they will issue a Decree of Nullity, stating in fact, that no valid marriage ever existed. And, before you ask, this has no effect whatever on the status of any children of the marriage.
Please search this forum under marriage, annulment or convalidation for much fuller info, great links.
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cameron_lansing
Guest
A decree of nullity declares that a marriage never existed, whether as a valid and sacramental marriage in the case of two baptized persons, or as a valid but not sacramental marriage in the case in which at least one is unbaptized.
A decree of nullity does not dissolve the marriage but it would have declared the freedom of the party to enter a subsequent marriage. The dissolution of a valid non sacramental marriage by a Pauline privilege or in favor of the faith is an entirely different topic.
As for the original question, the relationship between Church law and moral theology is complex. Both reflect divine law that valid marriage, and certainly a consummated sacramental marriage, is indissoluble.
If a Catholic in a sacramental marriage “received” a decree of nullity after a divorce and subsequent marriage outside the Church, the matter should be brought to the parish priest to address questions of objective sin and culpability through confession, and then “regularizing” the second union according to Church law. There are too many possible complications involved here for responses to be appropriate, and some may be presented that are incorrect.
Beyond that, one can only say that such an attempted marriage outside the Church would not be considered valid by the Church in most circumstances, and that a Catholic would have impaired his or her communion with the Church in some way. Again, this is better discussed with a parish priest.
A decree of nullity does not dissolve the marriage but it would have declared the freedom of the party to enter a subsequent marriage. The dissolution of a valid non sacramental marriage by a Pauline privilege or in favor of the faith is an entirely different topic.
As for the original question, the relationship between Church law and moral theology is complex. Both reflect divine law that valid marriage, and certainly a consummated sacramental marriage, is indissoluble.
If a Catholic in a sacramental marriage “received” a decree of nullity after a divorce and subsequent marriage outside the Church, the matter should be brought to the parish priest to address questions of objective sin and culpability through confession, and then “regularizing” the second union according to Church law. There are too many possible complications involved here for responses to be appropriate, and some may be presented that are incorrect.
Beyond that, one can only say that such an attempted marriage outside the Church would not be considered valid by the Church in most circumstances, and that a Catholic would have impaired his or her communion with the Church in some way. Again, this is better discussed with a parish priest.
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mdgspencer
Guest
The Gospel of Luke shows Christ explaining, “A man who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and anyone who marries a woman divorced from her husband commits adultery.”(Luke 16:18).
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Br.Rich_SFO
Guest
Since you are not specific in your original post. I will answer differently from the others. If you Marry validly in the Catholic Church and then divorce in civil court. Then later “re-marry” civilly to the same person. No sin is committed by doing so, and the Marriage retains it’s original presumption of validity.When a person remarries after being married in the church and divorced in civil court, why is it still a sin?
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