P
Pete_Holter
Guest
Greetings, my brothers and sisters! I was wondering if someone could help me with this…
“To those who set out for Jerusalem and offer effective help towards the defense of the Christian people and overcoming the tyranny of the infidels, we grant the remission of their sins…” (First Lateran Council, Canon 10).
The only commentary I’ve been able to find on this canon follows…
"Comment. …] The ‘remissions of sins’ spoken of refers to the plenary indulgence granted to all who should either undertake the journey or in other ways contribute toward the furtherance of the cause, and is not to be understood as the actual remission by the pope of sins not yet remitted by the sacrament of penance. …]
“Added note (Halsall): The theology to make the distinction between an ‘indulgence’ and a ‘forgiveness’ of sins did not exist when this canon was promulgated. Fr. Schroeder here imposes later Catholic theology on the canons.”
This commentary was taken from
fordham.edu/halsall/basis/lateran1.html
My question is this:
Can anyone direct me to any documents from the Church of the 12th century showing that this “remission” was understood by the Church of that time as referring not to the remission of the guilt and eternal punishment, but only to the remission of the temporal punishment?
Thank you very much!
“To those who set out for Jerusalem and offer effective help towards the defense of the Christian people and overcoming the tyranny of the infidels, we grant the remission of their sins…” (First Lateran Council, Canon 10).
The only commentary I’ve been able to find on this canon follows…
"Comment. …] The ‘remissions of sins’ spoken of refers to the plenary indulgence granted to all who should either undertake the journey or in other ways contribute toward the furtherance of the cause, and is not to be understood as the actual remission by the pope of sins not yet remitted by the sacrament of penance. …]
“Added note (Halsall): The theology to make the distinction between an ‘indulgence’ and a ‘forgiveness’ of sins did not exist when this canon was promulgated. Fr. Schroeder here imposes later Catholic theology on the canons.”
This commentary was taken from
fordham.edu/halsall/basis/lateran1.html
My question is this:
Can anyone direct me to any documents from the Church of the 12th century showing that this “remission” was understood by the Church of that time as referring not to the remission of the guilt and eternal punishment, but only to the remission of the temporal punishment?
Thank you very much!