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JonW

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PART I

Hello again friend,

In saying that the atheist cannot base his position on anything the natural sciences have to say, I agree, although I didn’t quite think so when I was an atheist. I was very much enamored of the idea that good philosophy was actually continuous with, and a real part of, modern science. Thus there was no prior philosophy above or before any of the physical sciences, and so philosophy could not proscribe scientific prinicples, but only use them, etc. As such, philosophy was also held up to the standard of rigor required of the sciences as well. It’s an idea of Quine’s, which he calls “naturalism”. Incidentally, he viewed any “metaphysics” which sought to proscribe guidelines to science, or , heaven forbid, strayed into such murky areas as philosophy of religion, etc., as simply “irresponsible metaphysics.” I still love Quine, and consider much of his stuff to be the best philosophy of the 20th century.

Anyway, even if I still felt enamored of Quine’s naturalism, your claim that the atheist cannot base his position on natural science would be true, since considerations of theism or atheism would be out of bounds of responsible metaphysics anyway. This is not my view, but something like it was at the time. It seems I’ve strayed from my own thread before I even got it started. My apologies. All this in the way of saying, “yes, we agree here.”

Next, I will of course always bow to the authority of St. Paul and St. Augustine on matters of Faith, construed as religious faith. I am not sure how you think those quotes and the subsequent discussion of natural law relate to the topic of weak atheism or atheism as a default position. Paul is saying that the “attributes” of God are evident to all, and that the Law, what we would now call natural law, is written in the hearts of everyone. Next, you say that on the basis of the quotes you have provided, I should be accusing Paul and possibly Augustine of doing a similar disservice to the faithful as the one of which I am accusing you. My “accusation” was in reference to your theory about the supposed “inverted faith” of atheists, not whether or not God is known by natural reaon or natural law to all. Perhaps this is a danger in taking the last first.

I apologize if I came off as hostile. I simply don’t want to confuse Catholic charity with pusilanimity.

Where you are using the word “faith” in the wider sense, I would simply use “belief”, “justified belief”, and in many instances in which you might actually mean just “belief”, I would go so far as to say “true justified belief” as in the case of Marathon. These are quibbles which don’t address the substance of our disagreement though, and if they do contain the substance of our quibbles, then I truly am sorry. OK, so aside from what I would call “belief” there are the various instantiations, not meanings, of religious faith, as you have pointed out. We agree on that. My comments about your use of the word faith in your original posts were in reference to your “inverted faith” theory, which you have not addressed at all in your response, so I can say nothing new on the subject here. I will, however, address your final comments in your last post.
 
PART II

In substance, you ask three questions and then talk as though you only asked one, but I will address all three. First though, I will address your comment, very briefly, on the “demonstrations” or “philosophical proofs” of God’s existence. The “proofs” you reference here are too many to address individually or even substantively. I will only echo what is general consensus among all serious philosophers of religion nowadays, theistic or atheistic in orientation. None of the proofs work as they were intended. None of them “prove” God’s existence, either philosophically or in any other imagined way. A couple of them are good and useful in pointing out ways that a theistic orientation might be defended against naysayers’ objections, but none of them constitutes what any serious thinker would consider a real demonstration or proof. This again might be a mere quibble and besides the point, and I hope it is, since there is no way to defend the “proofs” as they currently stand as demonstrations in the way that they were originally intended historically. The fault, in some cases, does not lie in the purported “proof” itself, but in our modern, more sophisticated understanding of what constitutes “proof” nowadays. Much progress has been made in this area, and the old proofs have been found wanting, even in principle and theory. Furthermore, no real inroads in the direction of philosophical argument for the existence of God have been made in the last several hundred years, except, I would argue, by Alvin Plantinga, but that is a topic for another time. Incidentally, the substance of why the various proofs don’t work is very long and complicated and, I think, unsuitable for an internet forum. I could suggest some books, if you like.

On to your first question. Since I think that there are good reasons based on historical evidence, natural law, probability, psychology, philosophy, etc. to believe in Jesus Christ as Lord, and then to believe in the Church as the true Church, I would argue that a part of being Catholic is based on reason, and very good reason at that. Not proof as we would mean it today mind you, but good reason. Ideas such as the Trinity, the Immaculate Conception of Mary, etc., I would say are based on Faith as I mean it in the religious sense, not what I would call belief in the everyday sense. An interesting point, I think, is that we do believe those strictures of Faith, but they are not based on belief. They come to us through Faith in the religious sense; Faith in God, Christ, Christ’s Church, in which we also believe, based on Faith. Here I would say the Faith is the substance and the belief is the accidents. I don’t want to blaspheme or anything, so I won’t say any more here. I will just finish answering your first question by affirming that I think that acceptance of God and His Church is based on both reason and Faith.

Regarding your second question, I’m not sure how it could be construed as a trick question, if one is asking this honestly of a Catholic.

I like your last question. I suppose I would say the non-philosopher “pagan” would be subject to the natural law and could, if he paid it any attention, delineate some strictures of the natural law through what is written in his heart. Remember though what happened when Christian missionaries started going to places that the Western world had heretofore not known existed, inhabited by people who had never heard the Gospel, and discovered that the Gospel as we know it was decidedly not known to anyone, much less a whole group of people, on the basis of the natural law, or human reason. I can be certain of one thing though. They certainly did not have “inverted faith” that the Gospel wasn’t true.

God Bless

Jon
 
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