Requiem aeternam

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Lindsay54

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Greetings all.

I am new to this site, and an Anglican (though with Catholic sympathies), so please forgive me if this is a naive question.

Can anyone please tell me, or direct me to a website which explains, the origins of the Latin words of the Requiem order? I have tried other online sources of wisdom, but unsuccessfully - the online Catholic Encyclopaedia in particular has a passing reference to a passage in 2 Esdras, but no detail.

The question arises, because my (regrettably, fiercely anti-Catholic) parish priest wants the wording changed in Fauré’s setting before we sing it, and I want some ammunition with which to resist this.

Many thanks for any help offered, God bless.
 
Greetings all.

I am new to this site, and an Anglican (though with Catholic sympathies), so please forgive me if this is a naive question.

Can anyone please tell me, or direct me to a website which explains, the origins of the Latin words of the Requiem order? I have tried other online sources of wisdom, but unsuccessfully - the online Catholic Encyclopaedia in particular has a passing reference to a passage in 2 Esdras, but no detail.

The question arises, because my (regrettably, fiercely anti-Catholic) parish priest wants the wording changed in Fauré’s setting before we sing it, and I want some ammunition with which to resist this.

Many thanks for any help offered, God bless.
Requiem æternam are the first two words of the Introit for the Requiem Mass and for All Souls Day.
 
I think that the OP knows what the words Requiem aeternam mean. I suspect the question is about the theological meaning and purpose of the various prayers that use this sort of language, as there is an Anglican cleric who questions this.

Lindsay54, I will cut to the chase, as I come from a background similar to yours. The Requiem texts are predicated upon the existence of purgatory, pure and simple. The texts presuppose that the departed soul is there, and we pray for quick deliverance of that soul–and by extension, all departed souls who have not been beatified or canonized–into heaven. Your vicar probably suspects this, and the p-word makes him uneasy. After all, if a soul is already in heaven, he/she does not need our prayers, and if in hell, then is beyond our prayers.

Anglican theology has traditionally recognized an intermediate state, which is largely its basis for the prayers for the departed. However, this theology, while rooted in a few writings by the Anglican Divines, really was not developed until the Oxford Movement held sway, and in the period after World War I. In England, the realization of the horrors of that conflict made it politically correct to pray for the dead, as it was an outlet for the sorrows wrought by the Great War. Liturgical revisions in the 1920s began to provide for prayers for the departed.

These naturally did not specifiy purgatory, and for low and broad churchmen, these prayers were/are more of a commemoration than anything else. This gave rise to names of the departed being read on All Saints Day. It was a sort of liturgical equivalent to the many mermorials, plaques, and other inscriptions where one sees “In memory of…” But the high churchman–who actually during the late 1800s had gradually begun celebrating Masses for the Dead, with black vestments, observing All Souls Day, etc.–understood these prayers to refer to the intermediate state, a somewhat tepid, though still accurate, term for purgatory. When many Anglo-Catholics began using missals in the early 1900s, these missals included the texts for the Masses for the Dead. Naturally, nearly all of these texts were taken in their entirety from the Roman Missal, which made the existence of purgatory clear through the Requiem texts. This situation was made more difficult by the fact that the liturgical funeral texts of the Vatican II era, particularly their English translations, reduced some of the purgatorial imagery (no more* Dies Irae*), used white vestments, etc. These were not erroeneous changes, by any means, and they still presuppose the presence of the departed in purgatory, but their general tone and the accompanying trends of “instant canonization” eulogies at Catholic funerals has in many ways worked against the notion of praying and sacrificing for the dead.

Many Anglicans, even of the of the Anglo-Catholic variety, do not even realize that the Requiem texts in the English Missal, Anglican Missal and American Missal all are Roman in origin and, as such, these texts entirely convey the nature of the Church Expectant/Suffering. They do not connect the dots, so to speak. A minority of Anglo-Catholics do grasp this, and their notion of praying for the departed is informed by this understanding. They realize that the Church is divided into the Church Militant on earth, Church Suffering (or Expectant) in purgatory and the Church Triumphant in heaven, and they pray for each. A handful may even utter the dreaded p-word (such as the Order of the Holy Cross in the US, whose classic St. Augustine’s Prayer Book used that term). Catholics of all stripes also understand that if we pray for the repose of a soul who is not in purgatory, then another soul or souls will receive the graces resultig from those Masses and prayers. This is all part of what we mean when in the Apostles Creed we say that we believe in the Communion of Saints.

I suspect that your vicar may be a little squeamish about this because he does not accept, or at least is unclear on, the nature of that intermediate state, purgatory.
 
Ahhh…now I understand the question. Sorry for misunderstanding.
I don’t think this piece should be changed in any way and it has nothing to do with theology. It has to do with the fact that this is how Faure wrote it. It’s a concert not a liturgy. I was involved in a chorus and we performed this piece several times. We were a diverse group…several Christian denominations as well as non Christians were part of our group. No one ever complained about the words.
 
Can anyone please tell me, or direct me to a website which explains, the origins of the Latin words of the Requiem order? I have tried other online sources of wisdom, but unsuccessfully - the online Catholic Encyclopaedia in particular has a passing reference to a passage in 2 Esdras, but no detail.
Chatter’s answer is certainly a good one. If you are looking for a Biblical basis for these particular words, I would point you to 1 Chronicles 23:25 …
dixit enim David requiem dedit Dominus Deus Israhel populo suo et habitationem Hierusalem usque in aeternum

For David said, The LORD God of Israel hath given rest unto his people, that they may dwell in Jerusalem for ever:
… and also to Sirach (Ecclesiasticus) 30:17, which unfortunately your church fails to include in its canon, but I think you would still consider an important apocryphal source:
melior est mors quam vita amara et requies aeterna quam languor perseverans

Better is death than a bitter life, and everlasting rest, than continual sickness.
Although to be honest, my RSV (which translates the words “eternal sleep”) has a footnote here that says, “Other ancient authorities lack eternal sleep,” and the KJV renders the verse:
Death is better than a bitter life, or continual sickeness.
 
My heartfelt thanks to all who have responded, and especially to Chatter163, for that most richly detailed and informative note (#4) - even if it did not exactly answer the question I (thought that I) had put.

Yes, Chatter163 was right, I understand the Latin - sorry, Anna Claire, if I did not word my original post sufficiently clearly.

Actually Mark Thompson’s reply (#6) is for my specific and selfish purposes the most helpful so far: my parish priest is susceptible to argument based on Scripture.

I remain curious to know, or to learn, when and how the words of the Requiem ordinary became established, and by whom.

Incidentally, Mark, “my” (Anglican) Church does acknowledge, at least in theory, the value of the Apocrypha - though it is, unfortunately, a resource which is sadly neglected by most Anglican pastors in their preaching. And Anna: this is emphatically not a “concert” - it is to be what, Anglican though I am, I would still call a “Mass for the Dead”, and the “performance” is to be in a proper liturgical context.

That said, I have heard plenty of homilies by RC priests too, and it is a bone of contention that they too tend to leave the OT aside in their preaching and exegesis.

None of these cavils detract from my genuine gratitude. God be with you all.

L.
 
You specifically asked for “ammunition” for use in arguing with your pastor. Simple but extremely harsh: “Faure the way it is written or you will be met with a resounding silence where you expect to hear beautiful, prayerful singing!”
If this is being done at a funeral, I would further assume that the family of the deceased is paying an honorarium for the music. “Who pays the piper calls the tune.”

Reb Levi
 
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