Susanlo. You said . . . .
Jesus explains to his disciples who stayed in John 6:63 that He is talking about something spiritual.
JOHN 6:51-52, 63 51 I am the living bread which came down from heaven; if any one eats of this bread, he will live for ever; and the bread which I shall give for the life of the world is my flesh." 52 The Jews then disputed among themselves, saying, “How can this man give us his flesh to eat?” . . . .
. . . (Jesus said) 63 It is the spirit that gives life, the flesh is of no avail; the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life.
Susanlo said (
here) . . . .
Jesus explains to his disciples who stayed in John 6:63 that He is talking about something spiritual.
“The flesh is of no avail”.
The context here Susanlo IS Spiritual, . . . . BUT! . . . . it is
not MERELY spiritual!
Some early Church heretics would say Jesus didn’t REALLY give His flesh on Calvary for our sins. It was merely “spiritual” they would say.
Yet Jesus said, “the bread which I shall give for the life of the world is my flesh.”
Jesus gave His WHOLE self on Calvary. Not just His spirit.
You and I would both agree with that.
So when Jesus says “the bread which I shall give for the life of the world is my flesh.” . . . . you and I both KNOW, Jesus gave ALL of HIMSELF on Calvary. Jesus gave His Body, Blood, Soul, and Divinity.
When Jesus says, “the bread which I shall give for the life of the world is my flesh” . . . it is not mere metaphor or to be “spiritualized” away.
You and I both agree on this.
Likewise when Jesus says,
“the flesh is of no avail” in verse 63 . . . we both KNOW
Jesus isn’t talking about HIS Flesh right?
You don’t think Jesus is saying His (Jesus) Sacred flesh is of “no avail” correct Susanlo?
(I hope you are not trying to throw that into the passage.)
When Jesus says, “
the flesh is of no avail” He is referring here to the works of
the flesh on our own (we can’t save ourselves).
But even more, “the flesh” refers to specific aspects of being unable to “save yourself”. The specific aspects likely would concern Old Covenant rituals, genealogy, etc.
"The flesh" = works of Old Covenant Torah or “Law” such as “circumcision”, tribal genealogy, etc.
Let’s look at Philippians 3:3-6 for a reasonable example of the Jewish meaning of what “the flesh” means to an ancient Jew.
St. Paul specifically talks about the phrase “the flesh” with regards to himself. Let’s see how he uses it.
(Special emphasis will be mine)
PHILIPPIANS 3:3-4 3 For we are the true circumcision who worship God in spirit, and glory in Christ Jesus, and put no confidence in THE FLESH.
4 Though I myself have reason for confidence in THE FLESH also.
If any other man thinks he has reason for confidence in THE FLESH, I have more:
Why? Why St. Paul, can you say that before you were a Christian, you had so much confidence in THE FLESH?
Fortunately St. Paul is about to tell us why.
PHILIPPIANS 3:4b-6 4b If any other man thinks he has reason
for confidence in THE FLESH, I have more:
5 circumcised on the eighth day,
of the people of Israel,
of the tribe of Benjamin,
a Hebrew born of Hebrews;
as to the law a Pharisee,
6 as to zeal a persecutor of the church,
as to righteousness under the law blameless.
“The law” incidentally that St. Paul is blameless in, is ritual law, NOT moral law!
“The law” St. Paul is “blameless” in is concerning his pedigree and various rituals such as circumcision is where St. Paul refers to himself as “blameless”.
St. Paul when referring to MORAL LAWS in 1st Timothy 1:15, refers to himself as “foremost” among sinners and NOT “BLAMELESS”.
- St. Paul concerning the law and “the flesh” = "Blameless"
- St. Paul concerning the law in a moral sense = "Foremost among sinners"
NOWHERE in Scripture does Jesus intimate His Sacred Flesh is of NO AVAIL!”
JOHN 6:63a 63 It is the spirit that gives life, the flesh is of no avail;