Resurrection of Jesus

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shestelle

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Not sure if I am posting this in the correct place. The question concerns the words of the Creed: “He rose again from the dead” !

Why is it that the Creed says, “He rose again from the dead” ? It seems to me that the Scriptures of the New Testament Gospels when speaking of the Resurrection of Jesus from the dead, the texts do not say “rose again”

Why does the Creed say: He rose again. It seems to me that the word “again” implies that Jesus rose more than once!

This is confusing, to say the least. A group of us was discussing this at Church this morning. Of course we were looking at both the Apostles Creed and Nicean Creed. I’ve looked at various translations on the internet, when I got home. It seems that the Latin text does not say “rose again” only translats as “rose from the dead”. The FRENCH text also says only “Il est ressucité des morts.” Is the English text defective?

Can someone explain this properly? thank you.
 
shestelle said:
Not sure if I am posting this in the correct place. The question concerns the words of the Creed: “He rose again from the dead” !

Why is it that the Creed says, “He rose again from the dead” ? It seems to me that the Scriptures of the New Testament Gospels when speaking of the Resurrection of Jesus from the dead, the texts do not say “rose again”

Why does the Creed say: He rose again. It seems to me that the word “again” implies that Jesus rose more than once!

This is confusing, to say the least. A group of us was discussing this at Church this morning. Of course we were looking at both the Apostles Creed and Nicean Creed. I’ve looked at various translations on the internet, when I got home. It seems that the Latin text does not say “rose again” only translats as “rose from the dead”. The FRENCH text also says only “Il est ressucité des morts.” Is the English text defective?

Can someone explain this properly? thank you.
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The word “again” refers to the status of being alive as opposed to being dead, not to the verb “rose”. He rose once, He was alive “again”.

And, if what you said about the Latin and the French versions is correct, this is only an issue in the English translation.
 
In French, as in Latin and for that matter English, the prefix “re” in resurrexit, resuscité and resurrection implies “again.”

It is not a problem, in that someone who rises does so to live again.

ICXC NIKA
 
Thanks for the answers. There still seems to be some confusion in my mind about this word “He rose again from the dead”. If He rises, why does it have to be** "again "**? He dies only once, so He rises only once! not "again"

I think that translations can be very confusing at times, and they don’t always speak the “TRUTH” of the matter.

So perhaps the question is “What is the TRUTH concerning the rising of Jesus from the dead”

thanks!
 
He died on Friday and came back to life sometime on Sunday ie. he rose from the dead, as the phrase would have it.

I’ve never had a problem with the phrase, as I just assumed it simply meant he came back to life.

As someone else has pointed out, the phrasing is probably the result of being translated from the Latin way back, with “re-” implying “again”.

If I ever had a problem with the creed/s, I suppose it would have been the bit about Christ descending into hell. But my understanding now is that Christ “preached” to the imprisoned spirits in Hell, or perhaps Sheol at that time. Although exactly what He would have “preached” to them I don’t know.
 
Bob_Crowley said:
He died on Friday and came back to life sometime on Sunday ie. he rose from the dead, as the phrase would have it.

I’ve never had a problem with the phrase, as I just assumed it simply meant he came back to life.

As someone else has pointed out, the phrasing is probably the result of being translated from the Latin way back, with “re-” implying “again”.

If I ever had a problem with the creed/s, I suppose it would have been the bit about Christ descending into hell. But my understanding now is that Christ “preached” to the imprisoned spirits in Hell, or perhaps Sheol at that time. Although exactly what He would have “preached” to them I don’t know.
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Thanks for responding, Bob! I really don’t have a problem with the “rose AGAIN” I simply hoped that others had also noticed this; and, what they thought about it.

As the "He descended into Hell ( Hades, Sheol ) I believe that Christ Jesus didn’t preach, but broke down the gates to free the captives there as was promised by God in Genesis and in the Prophets of the Old Testament and Psalms. Christ Jesus is the fulfillment of the Promise, our Redeemer, our Lord and Savior, the Son of God come to release us humans from the Ancient Curse of having been distanced from God by the sin/fall of Adam and Eve as they disobeyed God’s command not to eat of the Tree of Good and Evil in the Garden of Eden.

Have you ever seen the Icon of the Descent into Hades/ the Resurrection of the Orthodox Christian Tradition? It depicts this great mystery of the “descent into Hades”

How many of us really pray the Words of the CREED with our whole heart, mind and soul?
Truly having FAITH alive in our lives?

“Christ is risen from the dead, trampling down death by death; and to those in the tombs restoring Life!”
 
shestelle said:
Not sure if I am posting this in the correct place. The question concerns the words of the Creed: “He rose again from the dead” !

Why is it that the Creed says, “He rose again from the dead” ? It seems to me that the Scriptures of the New Testament Gospels when speaking of the Resurrection of Jesus from the dead, the texts do not say “rose again”

Why does the Creed say: He rose again. It seems to me that the word “again” implies that Jesus rose more than once!

This is confusing, to say the least. A group of us was discussing this at Church this morning. Of course we were looking at both the Apostles Creed and Nicean Creed. I’ve looked at various translations on the internet, when I got home. It seems that the Latin text does not say “rose again” only translats as “rose from the dead”. The FRENCH text also says only “Il est ressucité des morts.” Is the English text defective?

Can someone explain this properly? thank you.
Click to expand...
It’s just an idiosyncrasy of the English language translations. I wouldn’t let it be a stumbling block, or let it worry you or anything. You know the doctrine. It’s like that odd statement at the end of the 1st chapter of Matthew where Joseph and Mary didn’t have relations UNTIL she had delivered her first born son. Well, we know from all other teachings in scripture and tradition that Mary was perpetually virgin, so the phrase need not be a stumbling block, but yet, it was for me for a while, until I did some more study on the issue, and realized, that it is just unfortunate wording to the modern English ear. There’s no trickery or diversion afoot among the ancient evangelists.

Jesus suffered, died, rose, and is seated at the right hand of the Father. Just once…no how deep you get into the study of it through the remainder of scripture, and through the Church Fathers, Bishops, Saints and Popes.
 
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