What is this “inserting a name into Isaiah claim”? Neither I nor St. Paul did such a thing. Where is the evidence to your accusations?
Philippians 2:9-11
Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:
That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
This is just another prime example of Paul pulling out passages in the Tanakh and either deceptively knowing that most would not bother to verify or showing that he indeed was not Jewish (but by conversion only).
Isaiah 45:23, when put into context, is clearly not speaking of Jesus… but of God, the SAME ONE spoken of by Moses, the prophet, in Deut 4:14-15… the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.
He, God, is ONE Lord… there is no other. And clearly Paul is saying that there is another by inserting Jesus, a man, into the place of God… even contradicting what Moses had said. Isaiah 47:3- 4 As for our redeemer, the LORD of hosts is his
name, the Holy One of Israel. (don’t skip out on verse 3 though).
Isaiah 44:23 is clear that it is GOD (not a man) Who redeems Jacob (the Jewish), and that He, God, will glorify
Himself IN ISRAEL.
Isaiah 42:8 Directly refutes what Paul says there in Philippians. The LORD (not Jesus) is His name. His glory He will not give to another and His praise will He give to the graven images.
And it is to the Eunuchs that the everlasting name, better than the sons and daughters is given… notice also they are not the Gentiles. This is in Isaiah 56. The name is to a THEM and not one man named Jesus.
In particular, you are making opinionated comments that are unclear and without evidence. You claim this gospel to be “his” as in reference to what? The document I referenced is St. Paul’s Letter to the Philippians. If that is not a letter from St. Paul, then who would it be from? Yes the letter is his if you do your historical research.
I say all of the above to answer you here… I am not doubting these letters are from a man named Paul… but any claims he makes to being Jewish, I do not believe given even that one example of his deceptive nature and/or lack of knowledge (take your pick… I guess both personally) … at best he was one of the hellenizers who converted to Judaism (or his family did) for the sake of filtering the Light of Truth that is brought to us via the Jewish who were TRUE warriors for their God and their faith, Judaism.
He obviously knew more about hellenistic mythologies than he did the Tanakh.
In addition, Letters are not Gospels, they are part of Scripture however. There are four distinct Gospels, none of which are written by him. Where do you get such inaccurate information? Do not confused the terms as you have done above.
I think I have done quite well in just sharing that tid bit of information with you
By the way…
Read 2 Timothy 2:8 … braggers too big for their own britches often give a bit too much information away, no? Read that verse and tell me… whose gospel is this?
Lastly, you ask if he can be trusted for what he is, a respected Jew who fulfills all the obligations of the Mosaic Law? Well you can look up your history. He is a Roman

Yes, I cut you off there… because that is ALL we actually have evidence of!!
He did not know the Mosaic Law… and apparently neither do you.
And as for my parents… I have more evidence that they are my parents and proof of our heritage than you do of Paul’s. Even still, I would never have to prove this to point out the Truth (that he felt the need to do such makes him all the more suspect)…