Some would ask, “what gives the rich the right to amass their wealth on the backs of the poor?”
Certainly a rich man does not need another dollar as much as a poor man does. Why should that dollar then go to the rich man?
That is not the right question. Dwelling on that question is a violation of the 10th Commandment of the Decalogue.
[BIBLEDRB]Deut 5:21[/BIBLEDRB]
Now, there are a couple of ways to look at it that would actually be moral:
The first way is to examine if there was injustice done in amassing that wealth. That injustice should be corrected. And it would be the function of the State to act to correct that injustice…acting as a guardian of the poor who might not have a voice for themselves. But this should be done where injustice is actually done, not done against a whole class of people.
Let me give you a couple of examples:
- A rancher finds oil on his land. He pays the oil workers well to drill the wells and run the pipelines. He exercises all due care to ensure that oil doesn’t spill and damage the environment. He tithes from his profits made from the oil extracted and so on. And he ends up making $10 million from the oil field on his land. Is it an act of justice for the State to come and take a significant portion of the wealth that he accrued…by all reasonable measures completely morally?
- An electronics manufacturer outsources his circuit board plant to China. The local plant manager colludes with the Chinese State officials to use prisoners to assemble the circuit boards using unpaid labor in unhealthy conditions. Several are crippled as a result of using unsafe equipment. The electronics manufacturer increases his profits because his costs are lowered. For the sake of comparison, let us say his profits increased by $10 million. Is it an act of justice for the State to come and take a signicicant portion of the wealth that he accrued…by our standards, immorally?
In the first case, I would say absolutely no. In the second case, I would *also *say no.
Why, in the second case? Because the second employer, for all his scumminess, did not do damage to the State. He did damage to his employees. I think it would be a proper function of the State to bring suit against the employer on behalf of the employees and, if able to prove the case, to mandate that the unjust employer correct the injustice done to his employees. (Read Rerum Novarum) But that is completely different than confiscatory taxation.
There is one case where I could see the State being involved in confiscation and it not being a violation of injustice: and that is if the State was involved with creating that injustice in the first place. For example, let us say that a Brazilian government took a bribe from somebody and granted a million acres of Amazon rain forest to somebody so that the trees could be harvested and so on. This action displaced thousands of indigenous villagers. I could see the Brazilian government, when they found out about this misconduct, jailing the corrupt official and confiscating the land in order to return it to the people who had been living there for eons…along with the profits gained as a result of that corrupt bargain. Something along those lines I could definitely see. (Read Populorum Progressio). But that’s about the extent of it.
The other way to look at the issue is what is the rich person doing with his wealth. Is he embracing liberality with it There is nothing wrong with some people being distributed more than others (distributive justice). See Summa II-II 61.2, which states, in part:
Consequently in distributive justice a person receives all the more of the common goods, according as he holds a more prominent position in the community. This prominence in an aristocratic community is gauged according to virtue, in an oligarchy according to wealth, in a democracy according to liberty, and in various ways according to various forms of community. Hence in distributive justice the mean is observed, not according to equality between thing and thing, but according to proportion between things and persons: in such a way that even as one person surpasses another, so that which is given to one person surpasses that which is allotted to another. Hence the Philosopher says (Ethic. v, 3,4) that the mean in the latter case follows “geometrical proportion,” wherein equality depends not on quantity but on proportion.
That is where societal norms need to be shaped so as to fully endorse liberality rather than greed. Our teachers (the bishops and their assistants, the priests), along with other societal leaders, need to work to inculcate liberality as a virtue fully embraced and expected in our society. As Aquinas states (Summa II-II 117.6):
Every virtue tends towards a good; wherefore the greater virtue is that which tends towards the greater good. Now liberality tends towards a good in two ways: in one way, primarily and of its own nature; in another way, consequently. Primarily and of its very nature it tends to set in order one’s own affection towards the possession and use of money. On this way temperance, which moderates desires and pleasures relating to one’s own body, takes precedence of liberality: and so do fortitude and justice, which, in a manner, are directed to the common good, one in time of peace, the other in time of war … Again, liberality is ordained to a good consequently, and in this way it is directed to all the aforesaid goods. For by reason of his not being a lover of money, it follows that a man readily makes use of it, whether for himself. Or for the good of others, or for God’s glory. Thus it derives a certain excellence from being useful in many ways.
It’s very difficult to embrace liberality when somebody is forcing your hand.