D
Dionysus
Guest
This thread is largely a response on my part to the general impression I have developed of the way people, particularly those raised in the what might be called the Western, humanist tradition, tend to think about morality. It seems that everywhere I go (though it may just be around the campus here) people have such a blatant naïveté, that I can’t help but feel like I’ve stumbled into a Dostoevsky novel (“The Idiot”) and all the caricatured progressives are constantly demanding their rights. What rights? Well, people speak of rights as though the mere assertion of a right creates a right. In fact, I’ve come to realize (after a reaquaintance with Rousseau, Locke, Hobbes and all those characters) that this idea of the “right” is a cornerstone of contemporary western, humanist morality. This bothers me.
Why does it bother me? I’ll be frank. People do not have rights. Rights simply do not exist in the sense of the word which most people invoke when they speak of them. As an idea, they were invented by Thomas Hobbes and Hugo Grotius (though mostly Hobbes). In fact, they were invented my Muslim jurists during what Westerners call the Middle ages, but as fat the West is concerned, they sprung from the mind of Hobbes. My question the, is why is it that westerners (especially those of them who are ardent secularists) quote Thomas Hobbes like scripture? What Council confirmed the inerrancy of “Leviathan”? Most of them, of course, have never read a page of Hobbes. And I have a feeling that if they did, they would be dismayed at this crassly totalitarian thinker, the man who conceived “the right.”
Ironically, Hobbes did not think that men “had” rights, but were merely given them by the government, and they could be taken away at any time for any reason. With Hobbes’s view, one cannot say that the genocide in Sudan is a rights violation. He who giveth (Government) hath taken away again, the right to life of the people to be deprived of it.
Ultimately, I don’t really have a thesis. What I have is a question. How can anyone postulate that another human being can or can’t do something on the basis that it violates someone’s “rights”, and honestly believe that they’re making a claim that is theologically neutral, that it is somehow in a different category from the claim of the Muslim that an act is immoral because it offends Allah, or that of a Christian who calls an act immoral because it is written so in scripture? Why am I forced by my citizenship to *believe *in human rights? Because they are consented to be true by the people? What then of religious toleration in a country that is 90% Christian, or better yet, almost 100% Muslim? Does a government really have “the right” to assert that their rights-based systems are more reasonable than the theocratic systems of Islam? I am quite willing to argue that the Islamic juristic system is much more consistent and sound than the deontological western one.
If not consent, then what? Power. We are in fact living in a theocracy. The fact that the rights system doesn’t assert the existence of a god is, I am convinced, why many westerners, especially liberals and secularists, think it to be superior to other juristic systems. This is simply moronic, for one could just as easily assert the truth of the entirety of the Shari ‘a without asserting the existence of a god, but simply holding that the laws are “just there.” Doing this would make just as much sense as what westerners do when they assert the existence of rights out of thin air.
So while these air-headed college kids who belong to STAND (an anti-Sudanese genocide group) shun to claim that what the genocidaires are doing is immoral, they eagerly and self-righteously claim that they are violating their victims rights. What I contest is that such a claim is meaningless, because either Sudan decides what rights the Sudanese have, or we’re going to have to scrap Hobbes. And then t whom will we turn? Hugo Grotius practically invented international law, how about him? Oops, his theory was based the universality of Christian morality, I guess not. How then do we justify our pretentions? Where can one find one’s rights? In the pineal gland? And what exactly is so bad about genocide?
Why does it bother me? I’ll be frank. People do not have rights. Rights simply do not exist in the sense of the word which most people invoke when they speak of them. As an idea, they were invented by Thomas Hobbes and Hugo Grotius (though mostly Hobbes). In fact, they were invented my Muslim jurists during what Westerners call the Middle ages, but as fat the West is concerned, they sprung from the mind of Hobbes. My question the, is why is it that westerners (especially those of them who are ardent secularists) quote Thomas Hobbes like scripture? What Council confirmed the inerrancy of “Leviathan”? Most of them, of course, have never read a page of Hobbes. And I have a feeling that if they did, they would be dismayed at this crassly totalitarian thinker, the man who conceived “the right.”
Ironically, Hobbes did not think that men “had” rights, but were merely given them by the government, and they could be taken away at any time for any reason. With Hobbes’s view, one cannot say that the genocide in Sudan is a rights violation. He who giveth (Government) hath taken away again, the right to life of the people to be deprived of it.
Ultimately, I don’t really have a thesis. What I have is a question. How can anyone postulate that another human being can or can’t do something on the basis that it violates someone’s “rights”, and honestly believe that they’re making a claim that is theologically neutral, that it is somehow in a different category from the claim of the Muslim that an act is immoral because it offends Allah, or that of a Christian who calls an act immoral because it is written so in scripture? Why am I forced by my citizenship to *believe *in human rights? Because they are consented to be true by the people? What then of religious toleration in a country that is 90% Christian, or better yet, almost 100% Muslim? Does a government really have “the right” to assert that their rights-based systems are more reasonable than the theocratic systems of Islam? I am quite willing to argue that the Islamic juristic system is much more consistent and sound than the deontological western one.
If not consent, then what? Power. We are in fact living in a theocracy. The fact that the rights system doesn’t assert the existence of a god is, I am convinced, why many westerners, especially liberals and secularists, think it to be superior to other juristic systems. This is simply moronic, for one could just as easily assert the truth of the entirety of the Shari ‘a without asserting the existence of a god, but simply holding that the laws are “just there.” Doing this would make just as much sense as what westerners do when they assert the existence of rights out of thin air.
So while these air-headed college kids who belong to STAND (an anti-Sudanese genocide group) shun to claim that what the genocidaires are doing is immoral, they eagerly and self-righteously claim that they are violating their victims rights. What I contest is that such a claim is meaningless, because either Sudan decides what rights the Sudanese have, or we’re going to have to scrap Hobbes. And then t whom will we turn? Hugo Grotius practically invented international law, how about him? Oops, his theory was based the universality of Christian morality, I guess not. How then do we justify our pretentions? Where can one find one’s rights? In the pineal gland? And what exactly is so bad about genocide?