KFK:
But how do you get individual primacy and universal jurisdiction out of Matthew’s gospel? Even St. Augustine wrote that the Rock referred to Christ, not the person of St. Peter.
I would appreciate you showing me where Saint Augustine wrote this (I do believe you, but I can’t find a relevant quote). At any rate, Saint Augustine also advocated at one point double-predestination.
The plain sense of the passage clearly indicates Peter: in Jesus’ language it is Kepha and kepha. There’s no need to go into this; this is a dead horse that has already been beaten to a pulp, and those who still hold to this second rock meaning Jesus are being intellectually dishonest.
Actually, I’m surprised that a Catholic thinking about becoming Eastern Orthodox would be so quick to wield the errors of the Protestants. My Orthodox friends accept the plain meaning of this text the same as Catholics. The Orthodox do not, after all, reject “first among equals”. They reject the sui juris authority of the pope over the Eastern Churches, and that the papacy alone is an organ of infallibility.
KFK:
No, the early church wasn’t slav
Slavishly – adv. Pertaining to or befitting a
slave (not Slav); servile.
He slavishly followed the crowd.
Now reread my post.
I wasn’t talking about language, but since you mentioned it…
KFK:
Even in the first centuries of the Roman Church the official language was Greek (the language the Bible was written in). Latin is the language of the pagan Roman Empire in the apostolic age.
Greek was also the
pagan language of the Hellenistic world. If you want a language that isn’t connected with paganism, then Hebrew is the way to go. If using a language that was once used by pagans somehow connects one to paganism, then we should all denounce the whole of Christianity and become Orthodox Jews.
KFK:
Unless you strictly adhere to a faith in doctrinal development, you can not apply the claims of infallibility as defined in Vatican I to the early Church.
Even Meyendorff has to accept doctrinal development (properly understood the same as Catholics do). Otherwise, how could the Eastern Orthodox explain the doctrine of the Divine Energies??
For a treatment of doctrinal development, I would suggest an Eastern Orthodox theologian, Jaroslav Pelikan, the first chapter of his A History of the Development of Doctrine; 1. The Emergence of the Catholic Tradition (100-600), entitled “Some Definitions”.