F
Fr_Ambrose
Guest
Théodred:Originally Posted by KFK:
But how do you get individual primacy and universal jurisdiction out of Matthew’s gospel? Even St. Augustine wrote that the Rock referred to Christ, not the person of St. Peter.
Augustine wrote several passages which deal with the question of whether Peter was the Rock. His mature conclusion was that the Rock is Christ.I would appreciate you showing me where Saint Augustine wrote this
“In one place I said… that the Church had been built on Peter as the Rock… but in fact it was not said to Peter, “Thou art the Rock,” but rather “Thou art Peter.” The Rock was Jesus Christ, Peter having confessed Him as all the Church confesses Him, He was then called Peter, “the Rock”… (ed, for his faith) …Between these two sentiments let the reader choose the most probable.”
St. Augustine, Retractions - 13th Sermon; Contra Julianum 1:13
St. Augustine adds:
"Peter had not a primacy over the apostles, but among the apostles, and Christ said to them “I will build upon Myself, I will not be built upon thee.”
**These comments by Augustine are highly significant. ** They are the fruits of his mature reflection and belong to his work of “Retractions” in which he corrects the former doctrinal errors of his earlier years. These comments totally demolish the Roman Catholic claim that the early Church Fathers taught what is now the modern Catholic teaching as regards the papal office.
Here we have the greatest theologian of the West writing**, after 400 years of the Church’s existence, that Peter is not the rock. ** Augustine allows such an interpretation, but he himself denies it. Would he have been in a position to deny it if the Church had believed it during the preceding 400 years??!
Here we have the man claimed by Rome as their most renowned theologian of the patristic age and yet he gives an interpretation of the most important passage in all the Bible for the claims of the Roman Catholic Church and its authority, and his own interpretation which is diametrically opposed to the Roman interpretation.
How does one explain this?
If there were truly, as Vatican I states, a unanimous consensus in the Church Fathers of interpretation of the Roman meaning of this passage, why do we find Saint Augustine deliberately going against such a consensus?
The answer, quite simply, is that there never was such a consensus in the early Church.
(PS: just to be upfront - I belong to the Orthodox Church.)