Roman MIssal Third Edition

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I don’t know if this has been discussed elsewhere and I can not find it, but does anyone know a easily communicable reason why the Roman Missal has been revised again? I’ve already explained it’s a more accurate translation of the Latin to my wife, but I get a response basically expressing that the Church seems to be changing too much since Vatican 2 so they must be doing something incorrect.
 
I’ve already explained it’s a more accurate translation of the Latin to my wife, but I get a response basically expressing that the Church seems to be changing too much since Vatican 2 so they must be doing something incorrect.
I am a very recent convert, a candidate in RCIA, and all of this is very new to me. On the basis of this forum alone I see a lot of discomfort about Vatican II. I don’t know a lick about it except to say that I believe it is when they changed the Mass from Latin to the common tongue. It concerns me that so many are concerned about it especially since I don’t know how Vatican II fits into the grand scheme of things or what all it impacted. Was the Church radically changed in the 1960’s after close to 2,000 years of remaining the same?
 
The USCCB has a section of their website which explains it well:
usccb.org/romanmissal/

It may help her to remember that while the Mass contains dogma and doctrine, how we say the Mass is a discipline that can be changed to make it clearer, holier, etc.
 
I don’t know if this has been discussed elsewhere and I can not find it, but does anyone know a easily communicable reason why the Roman Missal has been revised again? I’ve already explained it’s a more accurate translation of the Latin to my wife, but I get a response basically expressing that the Church seems to be changing too much since Vatican 2 so they must be doing something incorrect.
Well, we’ve had the current translations for about forty years, so this not exactly what I’d call an overnight change.

Here’s an example of why the Church has seen fit to take a more serious approach to some of these things. This is the current version of the Prayer Over the Gifts for the 8th Sunday of Ordinary Time:
God our Creator, may this bread and wine we offer as a sign of our love and worship lead us to salvation.
It’s certainly touches on an important topic, but as a prayer it’s short, bland, and obvious. Not very much there to grab anyone either spiritually or intellectually. Is that what the Church intended us to hear, though? Well, here’s the original:
Deus, qui offerenda tuo nomimi tribuis, et oblata devotioni nostrae servitutis ascribis, quaesumus clementiam tuam, ut, quod praestas unde sit meritum, proficere nobis largiaris ad praemium.
Looks like there’s a bit more to it. Here’s what the new translation will probably look like:
O God, who provide gifts to be offered to your name and count our oblations as a token of devoted service, we ask of your mercy, that what you grant as the source of merit you may also bestow upon us as a prize.
Now that’s, at least, a prayer that it’s worth bothering to open a book to read. And that’s one of the key reasons why it was time to pay a little more attention to the translations – because in the current, 1970’s-era translation, far, far too many of the prayers of the Mass which were supposed to be interesting, moving, and theologically meaty got trimmed down instead to unremarkable, vanilla statements that any kid preparing for his first Communion could make. Here’s the Prayer After Communion for the 28th Sunday of Ordinary Time, which you heard a few weeks ago:
Almighty Father, may the body and blood of your Son give us a share in his life.
Whoa nelly, don’t overwhelm us with too much theology! I mean, we’re seriously making the altar server get up and walk over with that big missal just so the priest can read this? I wonder how we’ll ever be able to handle the new (faithful) translation:
Humbly we entreat your majesty, O Lord, that, as you feed us with the nourishment that comes from the most holy Body and Blood of your Son, you may make us sharers of his divine nature.
 
I am a very recent convert, a candidate in RCIA, and all of this is very new to me. On the basis of this forum alone I see a lot of discomfort about Vatican II. I don’t know a lick about it except to say that I believe it is when they changed the Mass from Latin to the common tongue. It concerns me that so many are concerned about it especially since I don’t know how Vatican II fits into the grand scheme of things or what all it impacted. Was the Church radically changed in the 1960’s after close to 2,000 years of remaining the same?
In my opinion as a post-Vatican 2 born & raised Catholic, I think what happened was an enormous disconnect between the intent of Vatican 2 and the application. From what I’ve read online (for the most part), too many bishops and priests took it upon themselves to modify the Mass and perhaps some of the teachings beyond the intent, particularly here in the US, essentially watering down the Faith. There has been, relatively recently, a “push back” to returning to a more traditional Catholicism, while trying to maintain the intent of Vatican 2 which I believe to be primarily a calling to the lay Catholic to evangalize and to truly live the life of Christ in service to the poor. I could be completely off base on this, but it’s what I’ve been able to discern so far.

Mr. Thompson & Doctor,
Thank you! I will try and show her comparisons between current and upcoming texts.
 
I don’t know if this has been discussed elsewhere and I can not find it, but does anyone know a easily communicable reason why the Roman Missal has been revised again? I’ve already explained it’s a more accurate translation of the Latin to my wife, but I get a response basically expressing that the Church seems to be changing too much since Vatican 2 so they must be doing something incorrect.
First, we need to be specific in what’s being talked about here. The Roman Missal itself is NOT being changed… only the translation of the Missal from the Latin. In other words, the things that we do at Mass will remain exactly the same, but the translation into English will now be rendered into English more faithfully. Vatican II, like many councils of the church, caused some changes in the way the church did things. Many times, change works like a pendulum. Things move a certain direction, and while some of the changes work, others don’t, and the pendulum moves back a little bit to put things into equilibrium again. We are now 40-some odd years out from the council, and certain changes are being refined, fixed, or fine-tuned to make them work as intended. One of those is the translation of the mass.

One of the changes that occurred after Vatican II was indeed giving priests the option of saying the Mass in vernacular languages (although saying the Ordinary Form in Latin remains a completely valid option as well). A new translation came out very quickly, and there were two problems. The first was that the English translation was rushed out so it could be used quickly. This led to some inaccuracies. A second problem was that they used a “dynamic equivalence” technique, which prefers readability to accuracy. This, unfortunately, made certain passages lose some of their theological precision. What’s essentially been done is that the old translation is sort of a “first draft”, and that the new translation will fix many of the areas of the text to make them more accurate. There was also the hope of making the new translation a bit more beautiful and lofty, to emphasize that we are not partaking in an ordinary event. The hope was that this might bring a bit more reverence back to Mass that was lacking.

Remember, these things DO matter! A simple dispute over a single phrase in the Nicene Creed - “I believe in the Holy Spirit, the Lord, the Giver of Life, who proceeds from the Father and the Son” has caused almost 1000 years of dispute between Catholics and the Orthodox, and is one of a tiny handful of items that keeps our Churches separated! Another item from the Creed, “one in being with the Father”, will now be more faithfully rendered “consubstantial with the Father”. While this sounds like the same thing, imprecision on this one word caused a schism in the distant past!

The great Greek philosopher Plato once said that you must build a “foundation of firmest truth” when using language. In other words, you must be utterly precise so that you’re not misunderstood. It’s like saying “Hey, it’s snowing” to an Eskimo. An American would hear “snowing” and know what to expect outside, but Eskimos have like 22 words for snow, because they are different types. They would want to know if it’s heavy, wet snow that’s good for building igloos, or light fluffy snow that’s good for running dogsleds and hunting. That information would be critical for knowing what they were going to do that day. So, while saying “snowing” is technically correct, it’s too simplified to convey all of the meaning. The church is now simply going back and working out the kinks in the changes they started, that’s all.
 
It’s like saying “Hey, it’s snowing” to an Eskimo. An American would hear “snowing” and know what to expect outside, but Eskimos have like 22 words for snow, because they are different types. They would want to know if it’s heavy, wet snow that’s good for building igloos, or light fluffy snow that’s good for running dogsleds and hunting. That information would be critical for knowing what they were going to do that day.
A popular urban legend. (The rest of your post is right on, though. :))
 
The great Greek philosopher Plato once said that you must build a “foundation of firmest truth” when using language. In other words, you must be utterly precise so that you’re not misunderstood. It’s like saying “Hey, it’s snowing” to an Eskimo. An American would hear “snowing” and know what to expect outside, but Eskimos have like 22 words for snow, because they are different types. They would want to know if it’s heavy, wet snow that’s good for building igloos, or light fluffy snow that’s good for running dogsleds and hunting. That information would be critical for knowing what they were going to do that day. So, while saying “snowing” is technically correct, it’s too simplified to convey all of the meaning. The church is now simply going back and working out the kinks in the changes they started, that’s all.
I was going to use the computer language analogy, where each language has its own uses and functionalities depending on the business model, and where some functions just can’t be performed efficiently (if at all) if translations to others are attempted. But your analogy of attributes of snow is better.
 
I don’t know if this has been discussed elsewhere and I can not find it, but does anyone know a easily communicable reason why the Roman Missal has been revised again? I’ve already explained it’s a more accurate translation of the Latin to my wife, but I get a response basically expressing that the Church seems to be changing too much since Vatican 2 so they must be doing something incorrect.
Your explanation is correct. The Magisterium considers it important to have a more literal (vs. dynamic) translation of the Latin from recent centuries, so that’s what is driving the new edition.

It’s not a question of doing anything incorrectly.

And yes, many feel there are too many changes, but this is typical, historically speaking, following ecumenical councils as significant as Vatican II.
 
First, we need to be specific in what’s being talked about here. The Roman Missal itself is NOT being changed… only the translation of the Missal from the Latin. In other words, the things that we do at Mass will remain exactly the same,
Not quite. The General Instruction of the Roman Missal (GIRM) included a number of changes to “things that we do” at Mass. The revised GIRM has been effective for a number of years now, and I assume most of us recognize changes regarding especially the distribution of communion, the purification of communion vessels, etc.
but the translation into English will now be rendered into English more faithfully.
No, the point is not “more faithfully” but rather “more literally.”

This is the emphasis of the instruction “Liturgicam Authenticum.” Following Vatican II, the Church promoted a “dynamic” rather than “formal” translation method. Now, the pendulum is swinging the other way.

Both translations are “faithful” but the 3rd edition of the Missal will be more literal to the Latin text of the past few centuries.

Catholics have always been faithful in their worship, I think, regardless of the translation used.
 
Remember, these things DO matter! A simple dispute over a single phrase in the Nicene Creed - “I believe in the Holy Spirit, the Lord, the Giver of Life, who proceeds from the Father and the Son” has caused almost 1000 years of dispute between Catholics and the Orthodox, and is one of a tiny handful of items that keeps our Churches separated!
Yes, historically this caused a problem. Not so much for the theological point, though, as rather the method the western (Latin) Church used to unilaterally insert this addendum to the Creed approved by ecumenical councils.

The original Creed, as developed and approved by ecumenical councils, did not contain this clause. The Apostle’s Creed is not affected by this dispute. Both Creeds are prayed faithfully by Christians.

As the Catholics and Orthodox recognize, from their consultations following Vatican II, this part of the Creed is not an obstacle to Christian unity, theologically.
 
No, the point is not “more faithfully” but rather “more literally.”

This is the emphasis of the instruction “Liturgicam Authenticum.” Following Vatican II, the Church promoted a “dynamic” rather than “formal” translation method. Now, the pendulum is swinging the other way.

Both translations are “faithful” but the 3rd edition of the Missal will be more literal to the Latin text of the past few centuries.
That’s not really true. In lots of instances, the present translations are not faithful even as dynamic translations.

There’s a place for dynamic translation, of course: puns and cultural references, for instance, can either be translated literally (in which case they keep their meaning but lose their effect) or dynamically (to provide a different pun or cultural reference that makes sense in the target language). Briefly speaking, a dynamic translation attempts to provide for the target audience in their own culture hearing the translated texts the same experience that a native speaker of the original language has hearing the original texts. My understanding of the two main English translations of Proust is that one conveys in a more accurate way precisely what Proust wrote, and the other provides for the English speaker an experience more like what a Frenchman has when he sits down to read Proust in the original.

But that’s not what we’re dealing with here. In many cases the current “translations” merely give sentences on topics vaguely related to the original, without providing either the literal meaning or a reasonable figurative stab at conveying the sense of the original.

Take, for example, the Prayer After Communion of the 30th Sunday of Ordinary Time, which currently says:
Lord, bring to perfection within us the communion we share in this sacrament. May our celebration have an effect in our lives.
It’s really one of the worst prayers in our present missal. Not only is it mind-numbingly bland (“may it have an effect”? let’s not get too specific, shall we), let’s consider how well it conveys the concepts covered in the original:
Perficiant in nobis, Domine, quaesumus, tua sacramenta quod continent, ut, quae nunc specie gerimus, rerum veritate capiamus.
Which is going to be more accurately translated:
May your Sacraments, O Lord, we pray, perfect in us what lies within them, that the things we now celebrate in signs we may one day possess in truth.
I mean, the current translation manages to be vaguely on the same topic as the original (the Eucharist, and somehow bringing us to perfection), but beyond that it bears essentially no relation, literal or dynamic, to any of the concepts contained in the original. It’s just not a “translation” in any sense.
 
That’s not really true. There’s a place for dymanic translations:
Yes, of course. As the Vatican instructed, following Vatican II, with Comme Le Prevoit, in 1969 (the Third Instruction on the Implementation of the Roman Missal…note Liturgicam Authenticam is the 5th such instruction).

ewtn.com/library/CURIA/CONSLEPR.HTM

My point is that Vatican Instructions, following Vatican II, in the 1960’s, explicitly endorsed the translation principle of “dynamic equivalence”. Now, with Liturgicam Authenticam, the Church has taken a different view, and is endorsing (requiring) “formal equivalence” (i.e. literal).
 
My point is that Vatican Instructions, following Vatican II, in the 1960’s, explicitly endorsed the translation principle of “dynamic equivalence”. Now, with Liturgicam Authenticam, the Church has taken a different view, and is endorsing (requiring) “formal equivalence” (i.e. literal).
Yes, and my point is that the present English translations are not faithful even under a hermeneutic of dynamic equivalence. That’s a myth.
 
Yes, and my point is that the present English translations are not faithful even under a hermeneutic of dynamic equivalence. That’s a myth.
No, it’s your opinion.

The translations were approved by the Vatican, so to say they are not faithful is a dangerous claim.

Do you have any objective (and authoritative) reference for your claim that the translations were not “faithful” under the principles of dynamic equivalence?

Remember, whether one prefers one or the other principle of translation really has nothing to do with the faithfulness of the text and prayers. Does it?

If you claim the Church has been praying “unfaithfully” for the past 40+ years, where does that leave us?
 
No, it’s your opinion.

The translations were approved by the Vatican, so to say they are not faithful is a dangerous claim.

Do you have any objective (and authoritative) reference for your claim that the translations were not “faithful” under the principles of dynamic equivalence?

Remember, whether one prefers one or the other principle of translation really has nothing to do with the faithfulness of the text and prayers. Does it?

If you claim the Church has been praying “unfaithfully” for the past 40+ years, where does that leave us?
Careful, I did not say that the current translations were somehow against the Catholic faith. I said that they were not faithful translations. There’s a difference. Suppose a prayer said (an invented example): “Pater omnipotens, da, quaesumus, nobis vitam aeternam,” and the translation said, “O God in Heaven, help us to follow your ways.” They’re both “faithful” in the sense of being fully Catholic things to say, but the translation just doesn’t have very much to do with the original at all. It is neither a literal translation nor a dynamic translation; it’s just a different, though pious enough, prayer. It is faithful to Catholic teaching, but it is not a faithful translation of the Latin.

The present missal is chock-full of stuff like this. If you can read Latin, feel free to look for yourself.
 
Careful, I did not say that the current translations were somehow against the Catholic faith. I said that they were not faithful translations. There’s a difference. Suppose a prayer said (an invented example): “Pater omnipotens, da, quaesumus, nobis vitam aeternam,” and the translation said, “O God in Heaven, help us to follow your ways.” They’re both “faithful” in the sense of being fully Catholic things to say, but the translation just doesn’t have very much to do with the original at all. It is neither a literal translation nor a dynamic translation; it’s just a different, though pious enough, prayer. It is faithful to Catholic teaching, but it is not a faithful translation of the Latin.

The present missal is chock-full of stuff like this. If you can read Latin, feel free to look for yourself.
Again, I think there’s a significant difference between “faithful” and “literal”. You seem to be conflating the two. Sorry if I misunderstand your points.

The point is, who determines what a “faithful translation” is?

The Church?

Or scholars, theologians, you, me, etc.?

You said the current translations are not faithful. Right? I didn’t say you said they were against the Catholic faith. But you did say they were unfaithful translations. Right?

So my question remains, if they are really unfaithful (and not merely non-literal) translations, what does that mean? Given the approval authority for the translations?
 
Again, I think there’s a significant difference between “faithful” and “literal”. You seem to be conflating the two. Sorry if I misunderstand your points.
I would not have picked the word “faithful” to govern this discussion, except that you remarked:
No, the point is not “more faithfully” but rather “more literally.”
. . .
**Both translations are “faithful” **but the 3rd edition of the Missal will be more literal to the Latin text of the past few centuries.
I know perfectly well that there’s a difference between “faithful” and “literal” translation. Take the phrase Orate, fratres. A literal translation is “Pray, brothers.” But “Pray, brothers and sisters” is at least faithful, under a hermeneutic of dynamic equivalence, to the extent it coveys the same meaning to a modern English-speaker that the original would have conveyed to an ancient Latin-speaker. On the other hand, something like (hypothetically speaking, of course) “Join me, my friends” is neither a literal translation nor a faithful dynamic translation.
The point is, who determines what a “faithful translation” is?
The Church?
Or scholars, theologians, you, me, etc.?
We’re all entitled to make our evaluations, I suppose, though in the end, obviously, it’s the Church’s judgment that is of practical effect.
You said the current translations are not faithful. Right? I didn’t say you said they were against the Catholic faith. But you did say they were unfaithful translations. Right?
So my question remains, if they are really unfaithful (and not merely non-literal) translations, what does that mean? Given the approval authority for the translations?
It means we’ve been using things that, in many cases, are not translations of the Latin, but more akin to new compositions. It’s like how the memorial acclamation “Christ has died, Christ is risen, Christ will come again” is not, and has never been, in the Latin text of the Mass in any way, shape, or form, but it was proposed and sent to Rome along as an option in the English translations, and approved.

There is in principle nothing wrong with using new compositions instead of translations of the Latin. If an episcopal conference says, “That prayer is lame and we don’t like it, can we replace it with something we wrote?”, and if Rome approves it, then it’s an approved variation in the Mass. The Mass has had approved variations for as long as history can record; it’s not conceptually problematic. But let’s at least not call the new prayer “a translation” of the Latin.

A fair amount of what’s in the present missal is sort of in between. In many places, such as the examples I’ve given, our present English missal deals with the same concepts and topics as the original, but often leaves out giant chunks of meaning, scrambles things around, radically alters the tone, and generally does not convey to an English-speaker anything like what a Latin-speaker would get out of the original text.

I don’t know enough about the history of ICEL (called ICET at the time, right?) to know whether they actually presented the current English texts as “translations,” or whether they were more open about the fact that in many respects they were writing an English Mass rather than translating a Latin Mass into English. Again, there is nothing conceptually incorrect about the latter approach, and for all I know in 1970 everybody understood perfectly well that that’s what was being done. It’s not a criticism to say that their work is “not a faithful translation” if they weren’t really trying to translate at all, but rather to generate their own, conceptually related work. There’s no accusation, nor even the possibility, of “faithlessness” in a judgmental respect, because someone who is not translating but instead composing does not have to be faithful, and indeed cannot really be. If they’ve asked permission to compose rather than translate, and been given it, and if their product is submitted and approved, then nothing is conceptually amiss. It just isn’t a translation, that’s all.
 
And yes, many feel there are too many changes, but this is typical, historically speaking, following ecumenical councils as significant as Vatican II.
Then why isn’t more actual Latin being pushed into the Mass, per Vatican II? Why are we simply reinforcing the all-vernacular all-the-time which was prohibited by the Council of Trent?
 
I don’t know enough about the history of ICEL (called ICET at the time, right?) to know whether they actually presented the current English texts as “translations,” or whether they were more open about the fact that in many respects they were writing an English Mass rather than translating a Latin Mass into English.
The above called to mind an old [thread=330994]thread[/thread] in the L&S forum here where this very issue was discussed at some length. If you haven’t already seen the thread, there are several interesting posts there, including [post=5120549]this one[/post].
 
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