R
raumzeitmc2
Guest
Well of course! But I think you would agree that some things are clearly intended only for specific individuals or particular churches as for example, when the Virgin declares that “all generations shall call me blessed.” Who would deny that this is a *singular prophecy *meant for her alone? Or another example: In Romans 16:16, St. Paul says to the Church at Rome, “all the churches of Christ salute you”. This is a unique greeting, found nowhere else in the entire New Testament! Only the Roman Church is greeted this way. Think of the significance of these sacred words: “all the churches of Christ salute you.”Wouldn’t you say it is true that all of Pauls letters had an overriding message for all of the local churches, which made up the one holy catholic and apostolic Church?
You know, most people who read these words, I dare say, give them virtually no thought whatsoever. But if they would seriously, prayerfully, mediate on them every day for say, a week or two, I believe they’d be in for some amazing insights!
“All the churches of Christ salute [the Church at Rome].”
Think about this. Pray about this.
My question, however, was regarding “Rome alone”. You said:
Well, there goes the so-called “right of private interpretation” !!“Thus we see that the Roman Church alone, of all the churches, has been given a unique and prophetic destiny to fulfill!”
I think your reading into the scripture more than is there.
But seriously, I’m not appealing here to my private or personal interpretation anyway. And even if I were, I would certainly *not insist on my opinion *; rather, I would wholeheartedly submit it to the judgment of the Church.
But is the apostle really addressing only the Roman Church when he speaks this prophecy? Well, that’s the opinion of one highly respected *Protestant *Bible scholar Alexander Souter (1873 - 1949) (who was a student of F. F. Bruce btw - see p. 4 here).
Souter writes:
“I am equally certain that the fifteenth and sixteenth chapters of Romans could not have been addressed to any other community than the Roman community, and that they are an authentic part of at least one form of the Epistle to the Romans.”
The *Earliest Latin Commentaries on the Epistles of St. Paul; A Study *(1927), Introduction, p. 4.
Now there’s some Scriptural data regarding authority vis a vis Rom 16:20, but I’m just too tired to post any more for now. Try again in a day or two.
God bless. Talk to ya later.