Chap. 3,ver. 1. “What advantage then hath the Jew?” 10
Since he has set all aside, the hearing, the teaching, the name of the Jew, the circumcision, and all the other particulars by his saying that “he is not a Jew which is one outwardly, but he which is one inwardly;” he next sees an objection which starts up, and against this makes his stand. Now what is this objection? If, he means, these things are no use, what reason was there for that nation being called, and the circumcision too being given? What does he then and how does he solve it? By the same means as he did before: for as there, he told, not of their praises, but the benefits of God; nor their well doings (for to be called a Jew and to know His Will and to approve the things which are more excellent, was no well doing of their own, but came of the grace of God: and this the Prophet also says, upbraiding them; “He hath not done so to any nation, neither hath he showed His judgments unto them;” (Ps cxlvii. 20). and Moses again; “Ask now whether there hath been any such thing as this?” he says, “did ever people hear the voice of God speaking out of the midst of the fire, and live?”) (Dt 4,32, Dt 4,33), this then he does here also. For as, when speaking of circumcision, he did not say, Circumcision is valueless without a good life, but, Circumcision is of value with a good life, pointing out the same thing but in a more subdued tone. And again he does not say, If thou be a breaker of the Law, thou who art circumcised art no whit profited, but “thy circumcision is made uncircumcision:” and after this again, “the uncircumcision,” saith he, shall “judge,” not the circumcision, but “thee that dost transgress the Law,” so sparing the things of the Law, and smiting the persons. So he doth here also. For after setting before himself this objection, and saying, “what advantage then hath the Jew?” he says not, None, but he concurs with the statement, and confutes it again by the sequel, and shows that they were even punished owing to this preëminence. And how he does so, I will tell you when I have stated the objection. “What advantage then,” he says, “hath the Jew,” or “what profit is there of circumcision?”
Ver. 2. “Much every way: chiefly, because that they were entrusted with the oracles of God.”
17 Do you see that, as I said above, it is not their well doings, but the benefits of God, that he everywhere counts up? And what is the word episteuqhsan? (they were trusted). It means, that they had the Law put into their hands because He held them 11 to be of so much account that He entrusted to them oracles which came down from above. I know indeed that some take the “entrusted” not of the Jews, but of the oracles, as much as to say, the Law was believed in. But the context does not admit of this being held good. For in the first place he is saying this with a view to accuse them, and to show that, though in the enjoyment of many a blessing from above, they yet showed great ingratitude. Then, the context also makes this clear. For he goes on to say, “For what if some did not believe?” If they did not believe, how do some say, the oracles were believed in? 12 What does he mean then? Why that God entrusted the same to them, and not that they trusted to the oracles: 13 how else will the context make sense? For he farther goes on to say,
Ver. 3. “For what if some did not believe?” 14
And what comes next makes the same point clear. For he again adds and follows; “Shall their unbelief make the faith of God without effect?”
