J
JMKC
Guest
I’ve been searching for an answer to this for some time now and I’m wondering if anyone has an answer to it. Romans 7:17 says “Now then it is no more I that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me.” I’ve been in discussion with a Lutheran friend who points out that in Romans 7, St. Paul continually talks about sin dwelling (or being “housed”) within him. Catholics argue that he is referring to concupiscence however why would he write “sin” if he meant “inclination to sin”? Would arguing this position constitute doing what we say some protestants do with John 6 (i.e. they says that Jesus doesn’t really mean we have to eat His flesh even though those are the words he uses)? Is there any way to answer my friend without saying “well, St. Paul means concupiscence”?