My understanding of Romans 2, as I have been thinking about my comments from last week:
I would say a more logical break for chapter 2 should actually start at 2:17.
To me, Rom 1:18-2:16 is the same issue. I agree with Pax that 1:32 goes directly with what is said immediately at the start of ch2. I say it reaches it’s peak at 2:9-11.
Further, I believe Paul is talking about all men, not just gentiles in ch 1, because 2:9-11 would not fit right if it were only talking about Gentiles.
Another important point to make is regarding 2:5-8, “God will give to each person according to what he has done.” While Protestants generally claim works prove we are saved, Rom 2:5-8 is a strong proof we are judged according to our works, how we lived our life.7To those who by persistence in doing good seek glory, honor and immortality, he will give eternal life. 8But for those who are self-seeking and who reject the truth and follow evil, there will be wrath and anger. 9There will be trouble and distress for every human being who does evil: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile; 10but glory, honor and peace for everyone who does good: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile.
This goes flatly against any notion of a one time, complete “saved” moment and against OSAS.
I have often heard it said (by Catholic converts from Protestantism) that Protestants don’t really know what do with Rom 2 because passages like the above dont fit their theology. They see Rom 1-3a as a indictment/condemnation of the whole world, with Rom 3b-4 as the “answer/solution” to this indictment. Thus when Paul talks about salvation according to works in between ch1 and ch3, it doesn’t fit.
Next, I would say Rom 2:17-3a is an added condemnation to either the Jews (non-Christians) or more likely the Judaizers (Jewish-Christian converts who were discriminating against Gentiles).
I have come to see Rom 2:17-24 as the key to understanding why Paul is mad/worried. These Judaizers were looking down upon the Gentile converts as an inferior class of people, almost like Whites “versus” Blacks discrimination in America. The Gentiles were “stupid” when it came to God’s laws, and they were not literally children of Abraham. To me, this is the only view that makes sense in light of how St Paul responds: he says the Jews commit the same sins, plus hypocricy, and that (in ch 4) the true children of Abraham are believers and not blood descendants.
Also, passages like 2:19 helped me understand why God chose the Jews. It was not, as I had mistakenly thought for so long, that God was leaving the Gentiles out in the cold for the first half of salvation history, but so that He could have these people as his mouthpiece to the nations. Thus the “light to those in darkness” means their duty was to live moral lives and thus convince their gentile neighbors that the God of Abraham was the one true God and they should imitate their lifestyle. I saw some OT passages that explain this as well, but I cant remember them off the top of my head. This makes sense in light of verse 24, which is a very strong stinging condemnation, the Jews on the grand scale failed their duty and caused the Gentiles to distrust and mock the One True God.
I have also come to REALLY like 2:25-29, esp 28f:28A man is not a Jew if he is only one outwardly, nor is circumcision merely outward and physical. 29No, a man is a Jew
if he is one inwardly; and circumcision is circumcision of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the written code. Such a man’s praise is not from men, but from God.
This passage is a gold mine. It is saying the Law itself lacks the power to save, and it is the Spirit who gives life. This is in essence the Catholic view of justification, an inner transformation by the Spirit. This also is comparable to Col 2:11
In him you were also circumcised, in the putting off of the sinful nature, not with a circumcision done by the hands of men but with the circumcision done by Christ,** 12having been buried with him in baptism and raised with him through your faith in the power of God, who raised him from the dead.**
Usually red text is for highlighting only, but I felt this whole passage worthy of that.

So circumcision is required for salvation, but it is not physical circumcision but that of an inner spiritual transformation.
Some might want to check out my
Ephesians 2:8 apologetics article, because I am taking my thoughts from there.
Passages like 2:28f don’t square with the Protestant notion that Rom 1-3a are an indictment, and further with the Protestant notion of an imputed alien righteousness rather than an infused transforming one. I am fully convinced Paul’s main argument against “works of the law” saving in ch3 and beyond comes down to passages like 2:28f. The Law doesn’t save because it lacks the power on its own to give life, it is not because the Law is too hard and so we have to look elsewhere. Also, 2:28f and the “real Jew” notion are what make places like Rom 13:8-12 make sense.
Oh boy, I’m tired after writing all that, hope I didn’t come off sounding too nerdy.
