Did Rome leave the Orthodox around 1054, competely out by 1400?
Is this statement true?
About the 10th Century, the Catholic church officially decided to take illegal authority over all dioceses in the West (by forcing them to adopt an illegally altered Nicene Creed as the key decision in that)–many of them were politically dependent on Rome, so they accepted without too much fuss, as it wasn’t upsetting the Status Quo. When the Anglican church ‘split’ from the Catholic church, what was happening was in reality, a return back to an older model of leadership in the church–a more Biblical and a model more in line with the whole tradition of the church. The Catholic church was wielding political authority as theology, and bad theology at that. When they refused to recognise Anglican orders it was a POLITICAL decision, not a theological one.
The statement is couched in polemical terms and requires unpacking.
Nothing about the history of the church in the West can be condensed into one paragraph and be accurate. Nor can a response be so condensed.
But I do see some things worth discussing here.
#1 Rome left Holy Orthodoxy. How and when is a subject for discussion.
If one accepts the date of 1054AD one has to recognize the fact that it was not a Pope, but a Cardinal who started the schism. The See of Rome was vacant. Some have argued that the Bull of excommunication was not valid because of this.
Nevertheless, the Popes had not been commemorated in the dyptichs of the eastern Patriarchs for several decades by then, because the Papacy had been tricked, or coerced into using the Nicene Creed in the Mass at Rome (a practice which actually originated in the east) with the
filioque interpolation included. Had they used the standard text the churches of the east would have had no problem with the change.
In any case, the churches were still in communion at this point, the removal of the Pope from the dyptichs was an admonition to make the correction.
To be fair, by 1054AD the western church was going through a needed major reform in reaction to the corrupt influence of princes and kings over the local churches (western churchmen were challenging royal power everywhere at this time). To accomplish this they were arguing for a much stronger Papacy.
This type of change in the Papacy would be difficult if not impossible to achieve without the consent and cooperation of the Eastern Catholic/Orthodox Patriarchs. The Eastern churches were very traditional and conservative, disliking any sort of change, however minor. There was bound to be conflict. Had a Council met at this time to discuss the proposed changes, the east would have represented a huge voting bloc in opposition, and the measure would have surely failed.
One could put enormous amounts of energy into convincing the eastern churches, or one could break off and move on without them.
#2 The authority of the Metropolitan See at Rome changed over time, and was not uniform in it’s power over the entire west untill nearly modern times. Historically (before Henry VIII, but after St Gregory Dialogos sent the missions of Saint Augustine to Britain), Rome had more real authority over the English church than over the churches of France and Spain.
It did not have anything like the authority over those churches that it exercises today.
It is true that the western church originated as several synods, it even had several different liturgical rites. The governance of the church was regional, and bishops were elected locally by the synod or the diocese.
That mode of governing the church has been buried in the west for a long time, there are only hints of it now.
I do
not think that arguing for Anglican independence on this basis is a strong one, because the monarchy of England separated the church for it’s own reasons, not as a reform or return to something more correct.
By separating itself in the way it did, it had no sister churches with which it sought to maintain communion through common faith, as is traditional. It was out there on it’s own, free to reformulate it’s theology, subjecting itself to outside and novel influences.
In other words, this became too much an exercise of the English people doing their own thing, their own way, for their own reasons… not the English people striving to maintain communion with the wider world under God through common faith.
The Anglican communion which derived from that was a string of clones of the first church. They did not fear teaching differently than their brethren, they each did not fear being expelled or cut off over their faith, as churches in the first millenium did. For them, sharing communion was no longer based upon a common inherited Apostolic faith, it was based upon something very superficial.
" When they refused to recognise Anglican orders it was a POLITICAL decision, not a theological one." I don’t know about this.
I may agree or disagree with the theology behind
Apostolicae Curae, but I will not speculate upon the motives behind it.