M
Mishakel
Guest
You’re looking at it way more complicated than I amLet’s ask the question in the way that philosophers do, when they ask the question “why?”. When we ask the question “why does the Book of Genesis exist in the Bible?”, we can certainly point to God. However, what if the inspired author didn’t respond to the inspiration he was given? In that case, he is a cause of the Bible as we know it!
You have my complete agreement that it’s a historical fact Catholicism helped shape “the Bible” as far as what was considered canon. You are going one step further by saying the following:
This is where you are in error.Similarly, the Church – utilizing the authority given to it by Jesus – decided to compile a particular set of books and call it “the Bible”. What if the Church hadn’t done so? Would there be a Bible as we know it? (You could respond “well… ya never know…!!!”, but that’s just another way of saying “no, I can’t say that there would.”)
I’ll finish this point and circle back around. I hate assuming things but
I think you’re delving too deep again. We simply have to answer the question, did Jesus hold the Jews accountable to scripture? It’s really as simple as that. The answer is yes time and time again. You are correct in claiming the Bible as we know it didn’t exist when Jesus was here but the OT scripts did and not only does Jesus hold the Jews accountable to them but he quotes from them time and time again.Yes, but those books weren’t the “OT” or “part of the Bible” at that point – they were merely Jewish scripture. They aren’t part of the Bible because of the esteem that Jews hold for them; they’re part of the Bible because the Church discerned that they are. There are many, many more books of holy write in the Jewish tradition, and they’re not part of the Bible. So… just because they existed in print, it doesn’t mean that the OT existed.
This is really the key to everything. Were the Scribes, Sadducees, Pharisees, and other Jewish religious leaders practicing Judaism the way Jesus wanted them to? No. All the Jews knew and studied the same texts. It was their consensus the scriptures were inspired and true. Yet, they hadn’t lived up to their standards and Jesus held them accountable.
The earliest of Christians certainly had the scriptures we see now in the NT. Probably most attribute Athanasius with compiling the 27 book list in 367 but Origen wrote in his Homilies on Joshua the same 27 books in 250. The point is God provided the world at the earliest of times his inspired Word.
So in answer to your question:
Yes, without a doubt, if Catholicism never existed God would have still provided his Word to the world.