“Anir”, on the other hand, corresponding with the Latin “vir” and jSlavonic “muzh” is gender specific male
.
“Aner” is indeed used to denote this or that specific man or male person. But I think there are some misconceptions regarding the use of “anthropos”, as it is not always generic.
“Anthropos” when referring to a single man has nearly universally been translated as “man”. There is no need to discard centuries of translational convention (especially when it not technically a wrong translation) simply for modern “sensitivity”.
In Koine when “anthropos” is used for a single individual it almost always denotes a male. In Greek literature it appears quite often to refer to a male singular being. I would also point out that in Greek literature “anthropos” is never used in reference to an individual woman.
When a particular person is introduced as “anthropos”, that person is invariably male. For example in Ephesians it is the “anthropos” that leaves his father and mother and wife. In Corinthians it is good for “anthropos” not to touch a woman, in Matthew in the case of an “anthropos” and his wife, etc. It simply is not true that “anthropos” always denotes a gender-neutral condition, in fact that is the minority of its usage. Otherwise “gyne” is used for the specific female.
“Anthropos” has thus a similiar ambiguity that “man” has in English, and thus while “man” can be understood to encompass males and females in the general sense “mankind”, “man” is never used to refer to an individual female, as is neither “anthropos”. Numerous citations in the LXX can be found that actually place “anthropos” in semantic opposition to “woman”.
Often in Koine when “one” is described (such as “they brought Him one from the crowd”, etc.) avto is used, and not “anthropos”.
A revisionist approach to translation is neither warranted by necessity or the technical considerations of translation from the original Greek. The idea that “anthropos” is always devoid of male connotation does not seem sensible.