I don’t doubt that there was an authority -We see in Scripture and early Church Fathers that in fact there is authority in the
Disciples as a group. We also see that there was a diifferent way of choosing and that the authority was local - decentralized.
newadvent.org/cathen/02581b.htm
A college of presbyters was established at an early date at Jerusalem and in Palestine, but elsewhere not before the second century; its members were chosen from among the presbyteroi, and in its hands lay all authority and disciplinary power.
Until the sixth century the clergy and the people elected the bishop on condition that the election should be approved by the neighbouring bishops.
At some point Catholic Sacred Tradition has canceled out Scripture and the earliest Church Fathers traditions. Where, when, how, why did this happen? ** Is there any concrete evidence that this new Sacred Tradition is TRUTH?** That only the Catholic Church has the authority?
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=6481160&postcount=596
I found a great article explaining my question:
catholic.com/thisrock/2001/0103fea1.asp
White Smoke, Valid Pope
A Heretic Pope Would Govern Illicitly—but Validly
By Rev. Brian Harrison, O.S.
*What I will show is that the 1917 Code of Canon Law, together with traditional papal conclave legislation, leaves no room for the view that the commission of heresy or apostasy prevents a man from validly attaining or retaining the papal office.
On the basis of twentieth-century canon law (found in both the 1917 and 1983 Codes), a pope who fulfilled the canonical requirements for heresy—that is, who pertinaciously doubted or denied one or more truths to be believed with divine and Catholic faith (cf. 1983 Code 751; 1917 Code 1325 §2)—would not have the moral right before God to be pope. Therefore, his remaining in office would be illicit. Still, if he refused to resign, he would truly be the pope in the sense that his acts of papal governance would still be valid before God and the Church. It should go without saying that divine providence would never permit him to define his heresy ex cathedra. The dogma of papal infallibility assures us this can never happen.*
Here it gets tricky the immoral Pope excomunicates Luther illicitly, but it remains a valid excommunication. Luther refuses to give up his post- he is acting illicitly but everyting he does is valid:
*For instance, a bishop who carries out an episcopal consecration without papal mandate acts illicitly but validly. He violates a just law, but the man he ordains receives the sacramental powers of a bishop so that he in turn can ordain true priests capable of offering the holy sacrifice of the Mass. A priest who celebrates Mass while in a state of mortal sin or without using proper vestments acts illicitly. But, assuming there are no other defects in the way he offers Mass, it is still valid: The bread and wine he consecrates truly become the body and blood of Christ.
… For instance, a bishop who appoints a certain priest as pastor of a parish knowing that the man is morally or psychologically unfit for the task acts illicitly, since the appointment violates canon law (cf. canon 521 §2, 1983 Code; canon 453 §2, 1917 Code). But the appointment is still valid. In other words, that priest is the rightful pastor of the parish so that, for instance, the marriages he witnesses there will be true marriages. The parishioners are obliged to accept and obey his just decisions for as long as the bishop keeps him in office.
It is thus seen that a minister who is himself evil does not invalidate either this or any of the other Sacraments, because it is Christ who, by the merits of His passion, gives to each Sacrament its efficacy; and He is good.*