God designed a full monthly cycle of fertile and non fertile periods. NFP only makes use of part of the cycle for the marital union. There is nothing inherent in God’s design to indicate this was what He intended His children to do.
It goes both ways: nothing inherent in God’s design shows that married couples must have sex at certain times and must not have sex at other times. Husbands and wives are free to decide for themselves when and how often they are going to have sex. They are under no divine mandate with regard to frequency or timing of intercourse.
Where does God command that married couples have sex at certain times? Where does His design indicate that they ought to have sex at certain times rather than others?
Exactly! His design did not make the fertile and non=fertile times inherently obvious. Perhaps it was not His intention that His children would be splitting up the month into sex / no sex periods instead of following the natural rhythym of their biologically driven desires.
There is a difference between “God’s design” and “God’s command”. They are not the same thing. There is latitude within which one can act in accord with God’s design of the fertility cycle and still follow His command for one flesh union. There is no command that says that married couples MUST observe His design and only behave in certain ways at certain times (and no NFP-using couple has said that couples MUST use it, just that it is permitted at certain times and for certain reasons).
Fertile and non-fertile times are pretty obvious…I’ve said before that NFP is not rocket science, and that is quite true. Female fertility is pretty mysterious, but it’s not totally un-observable. Perhaps if it were your argument would hold.
As it stands, what you’re saying is akin to saying that since the digestive and nutrient absorption process is not readily observable or inherently obvious to us, we should not try to figure out which types of food are most nourishing to our bodies and behave accordingly–instead, we should just eat what we want, when we want. I’m not sure when our “biologically driven desires” became the all-holy guide to live by–last I checked, we were supposed to be masters of our passions, rather than driven by mere biological/hormonal urges.
Here again a read of Wojtyla’s “Love and Responsibility,” this time on the subject of the sexual urge, would probably be helpful for your understanding of Catholic teaching on this subject.
Finally, what you are talking about–“intent” and “totality of actions” have NOTHING TO DO with the licitness of NFP. That is why the teaching documents on this topic speak of not frustrating the purposes of each per se act–each act IN ITSELF. A problem of “intention” and “totality of actions” can occur–every NFP “proponent” on this thread has admitted as such. But even a sin of selfishness or a lack of discernment on the part of an NFP using couple avoiding pregnancy does not affect the objective morality of NFP, nor does it suddenly transform NFP into ABC.
Since when has the Church ever divorced a person’s intent and totality of actions from morality? The insistence that having sex without a barrier or a pill, etc. somehow makes things OK IN ITSELF while ignoring the larger picture of what is actually going on is one of the things that I have been saying makes no sense. I don’t care if it’s what the Church teaches - I am saying that it IT MAKES NO MORAL SENSE. Insisting that the only licit way to have sex is without some barrier to conception while ignoring that the timing of NFP is also a barrier to conception IS INCONSISTENT on it’s face.
You are saying that the subjective reasons/intent of a couple using NFP suddenly transforms NFP itself (“per se”) into an **objectively **disordered and sinful action. This is simply not the case!
There is no objectively disordered act occurring when an NFP-using couple engages in the marital embrace during the infertile period. NFP does not become ABC when a couple has insufficient reason to use it.
NFP is not the problem; the selfishness of the couple is. Their sin would not be in having sex (which is always a good!) but in selfishness, disobedience to God’s plan, a lack of discernment, etc.
All we can look at is one act (object, intention, and circumstances) at a time and judge whether it is moral or immoral. In this case:
object: sexual union of husband and wife
intention: union of spouses; potential procreation of children
circumstances: mutually agreed-upon time, within the bond of matrimony
An overall attitude of “contraceptive intent” or a lack of serious reason to avoid pregnancy is a SEPARATE ACT and SEPARATE PROBLEM from the act of sex during the infertile period. The intention of a married couple using NFP, when they have sex (object) is NOT “avoiding of pregnancy”. It makes no sense to say that it is. An NFP-using couple, even with the worst intentions, never is doing anything that **objectively **frustrates the procreative purpose of sex, because they never are rendering the sex act infertile.