Dear brother MilesVitae
How can Catholics defend the teaching on the papacy against the case of the conflict between Saint Cyprian and Pope Stephen over re-baptism of heretics? My knowledge of the conflict is not too very deep, but non-catholics would say this is an example of a Church father not recognizing the universal authority of the bishop of Rome,
This can seem complicated, as far as assessing the perspective of St. Cyprian. The practice of Rome was not to rebaptize
certain heretics coming into the Catholic Church; on the other hand the practice of North African Churches was not consistent (i.e., some did, and some didn’t). A certain bishop from Numidia (a North African province) asked St. Cyprian’s advice on the fact that bishops in Mauretania (another North African province) did not rebaptize Novatians coming into the Catholic Church. St. Cyprian replied that Novatians need to be rebaptized, classing them with other well-known heresies such as the Montanists who were known to be rebaptized. Further, St. Cyprian assumed that the bishops were free to decide on the practice. The letter was circulated and reached Rome. Thereupon, Pope St. Stephen replied that it was not proper to rebaptize heretics who baptized according to the Faith given by Jesus Christ (i.e., “
In Jesus’ name”) and used the correct formula (i.e., “
in the Name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit”); Pope Stephen further threatened excommunication on those who did not adhere to the same standard. St. Cyprian replied that Pope St. Stephen was wrong.
Is it possible that the cause of the controversy was that St. Cyprian simply misinterpreted Pope St. Stephen’s response as an allowance for EVERY kind of baptism performed by heretics? Possible, but that was not the problem. While it can be reasonably argued that Pope St. Stephen’s position did
not allow for EVERY heretical baptism to be accepted, it is clear that St. Cyprian’s own position was that EVERY baptism outside the Catholic Church (whether of schismatics or heretics, and regardless of what type of heresy) could not be accepted. In this, St. Cyprian was clearly wrong. It was also wrong for St. Cyprian to advise that the matter should be left up to each bishop in his diocese, for such a position would break the Eucharistic unity of the Churches (as proposed in a previous post, imagine a Christian being able to receive communion in one See, and then discovering that he cannot receive communion in another See because his baptism was rejected and not considered a Christian).
But what about the objection that the bishop of Rome is not a “bishop of bishops?”
and doesn’t Firmilian (maybe Cyprian too?) object to Stephen making himself a “bishop of bishops”?
Here, we need to break down the matter to two issues:
(1) the cause of the objection, and
(2) the meaning of the term “
bishop of bishops.”
(1) Before the rebaptism controversy, St. Cyprian had specifically appealed to Pope St. Stephen to excommunicate a bishop in Gaul on a matter St. Cyprian perceived as a heresy (Novatianism). Obviously, St. Cyprian recognized the bishop of Rome’s prerogative to hand out a sentence of excommunication (for good reason) to other bishops. So was St. Cyprian simply being a hypocrite, or was there some other consideration involved? I personally don’t think St. Cyprian was a hypocrite. The answer could lie in the notion that the matter was not considered a doctrinal matter by St. Cyprian, but a discplinary one. On matters of discipline, unless there is a universally prescribed canon, bishops have the last say in their own particular Church. But there does not seem to have been a recognized universal canon on the issue at the time of the rebaptism controversy (certainly none to which any of the parties appealed).
So while St. Cyprian was objectively wrong, we need to cut him and those that sided with him some slack. And while Pope St. Stephen had the foresight to discern the universality of the matter, I think Catholics must concede that Pope St. Stephen’s threat of excommunication was very imprudent. The Pope should have discussed the matter with St. Cyprian and other bishops first, before sending out a general letter threatening excommunication. Absolutist Petrine advocates will see in this episode justification for their opinion that the Pope can act unilaterally. On the other hand, High Petrine advocates will see in this episode justification for the necessity of the Pope to act collegially in order to preserve the unity of the Church. The Pope
must always act with the unity of the Church in mind, and he cannot do this if he acts merely unilaterally. The Absolutist Petrine view thinks that unity is established through uncompromising obedience to a single bishop; the High Petrine view understands that unity can only be established through the agreement of the orthodox bishops.
Seriously…what is more likely to promote unity - lording it over others, or persuasion through dialogue?
CONTINUED