B
Batfink
Guest
I noticed when praying the office that the Common of Doctors refers several time to ‘this man’, which got me wondering. It turns our that the Common of Doctors may be used for Teresa of Avila but not for Catherine of Siena or Teresa of Lisieux (the other female Doctors). Anyone know why? It seems incongruous since the fact that they are Doctors is surely more noteworthy than that they are virgins, and yet that’s the Common they both get.
In addition, any ideas on why (apart from the obvious historico-cultural reasons) the Common of Virgins is used only for women? John (the beloved disciple) is the only man whose virginity is mentioned at all (in LOTH) and he obviously gets the common of Apostles, but there are other men whose chastity is as least as well documented as that of many of the women and yet…?
All help appreciated, thank you. BTW, am not trying e.g. to promote any kind of feminist counter-church/mount a campaign against the status quo etc., am just genuinely interested in how the commons were decided.
In addition, any ideas on why (apart from the obvious historico-cultural reasons) the Common of Virgins is used only for women? John (the beloved disciple) is the only man whose virginity is mentioned at all (in LOTH) and he obviously gets the common of Apostles, but there are other men whose chastity is as least as well documented as that of many of the women and yet…?
All help appreciated, thank you. BTW, am not trying e.g. to promote any kind of feminist counter-church/mount a campaign against the status quo etc., am just genuinely interested in how the commons were decided.