Salvation of gentiles before Christ?

[Moore11]

Before Jesus, and under the Old Law, what was the fate of dead gentiles? Jews went to Abraham’s bosom. And Jesus descended to the “dead” but what of those who were of other faiths, say perhaps Egyptians that worshiped Egyptian gods.

 

[TomD123]

Before Jesus, and under the Old Law, what was the fate of dead gentiles? Jews went to Abraham’s bosom. And Jesus descended to the “dead” but what of those who were of other faiths, say perhaps Egyptians that worshiped Egyptian gods.

The virtuous gentiles were saved, judged according to the law written on their hearts as St. Paul says. Here is a quote from a Church Father, it is consistant with the other Church Fathers:

From St. Justin Martyr
We have been taught that Christ is the first-begotten of God, and we have declared him to be the Logos of which all mankind partakes [John 1:9]. Those, therefore,** who lived according to reason [Greek, logos] were really Christians, even though they were thought to be atheists**, such as, among the Greeks, Socrates, Heraclitus, and others like them. . . . Those who lived before Christ but did not live according to reason [logos] were wicked men, and enemies of Christ, and murderers of those who did live according to reason [logos], whereas those who lived then or who live now according to reason [logos] are Christians. Such as these can be confident and unafraid" (First Apology 46 [A.D. 151]).

 

[Texas_Roofer]

The fate of the dead is mostly unknown to us. Saints are the exception. The other parts of your answer are, we have to trust in god for justice, and when a man answers his heart (see Natural [Moral] Law) he fulfills god call.

 

[Moore11]

Interesting. I guess what I dont understand is in other cultures such as the egyptian or greek when people worshiped other gods (actual gods like Ra) I just cannot understand how salvation can be achieved. Virtuous or not. I think the problem here is that they would have had to have lived Holy lives with no idea on what that is except for “natural law” which is not sufficient to be a guide or else God would have never given us anything else. How does something like homosexual culture or making sacrifices to other gods play into this. In Egypt they were even given signs that no one could ignore and still had to lose the firstborn.

 

[Texas_Roofer]

I wonder if there were some atheists involved in the formation of this question. If you were taught Christianity with “RA” used in place of “Jesus” would all the principles be void? I should think not. Natural Moral Law exists in all hearts to include Egyptians. The children of god known as Egyptians were probably 95% in common to you, so was the last 5% so different? Often I suspect they shared 99.9% of your beliefs, views, moral, principles, etc. So why should we fear they were naturally unjust, or suffered and injustice at the hands of god? Atheists often espouse the notion that if one calls god by another name that person must suffer injustice at god’s hand. But this only speaks to the true belief of the atheist, that namely being a lack of substance in their base views.

 

[Moore11]

I wonder if there were some atheists involved in the formation of this question. If you were taught Christianity with “RA” used in place of “Jesus” would all the principles be void? I should think not. Natural Moral Law exists in all hearts to include Egyptians. The children of god known as Egyptians were probably 95% in common to you, so was the last 5% so different? Often I suspect they shared 99.9% of your beliefs, views, moral, principles, etc. So why should we fear they were naturally unjust, or suffered and injustice at the hands of god? Atheists often espouse the notion that if one calls god by another name that person must suffer injustice at god’s hand. But this only speaks to the true belief of the atheist, that namely being a lack of substance in their base views.

What do you mean about athiests? This comes from debating with protestants about salvation. I don’t appreciate the insinuation. When discussing salvation by faith alone or faith and works this arises. The ideas of invincible ignorance and how one is saved is constantly being battled. One would not be taught christianity with Ra. This is why I used Ra as an example because it is used in the Bible as a god distictly different from God. So one cannot use the “all roads lead to Rome” namby pamby excuse that anyone who worships A god worships THE God. Ra is a completely different god. I am talking of people who like the egyptians saw the Jews and the works of God yet could not see the Truth. I guess my honest question is how was salvation attained by non jews before Christ? through natural law? If that is the case then natural law would have been sufficient for all time. And we know that is not the case.

 

[Moore11]

The virtuous gentiles were saved, judged according to the law written on their hearts as St. Paul says. Here is a quote from a Church Father, it is consistant with the other Church Fathers:

From St. Justin Martyr
We have been taught that Christ is the first-begotten of God, and we have declared him to be the Logos of which all mankind partakes [John 1:9]. Those, therefore,** who lived according to reason [Greek, logos] were really Christians, even though they were thought to be atheists**, such as, among the Greeks, Socrates, Heraclitus, and others like them. . . . Those who lived before Christ but did not live according to reason [logos] were wicked men, and enemies of Christ, and murderers of those who did live according to reason [logos], whereas those who lived then or who live now according to reason [logos] are Christians. Such as these can be confident and unafraid" (First Apology 46 [A.D. 151]).

I can actually follow this and it makes sense. Especially in light of the first Chapter of John and the use of the Logos. If we agree that God IS Logos and Logos is logical and reasonable. I dont believe God can ever go against logic. But how many people are truely logic?